Module 6 Previous Year Questions:
Q1. An assessment is __________ if it consistently achieves the same results with the same students.
A) Valid
B) Invalid
C) Reliable
D) Unreliable
Answer Key:
C) Reliable
Q2. An assessment that is conducted prior to the start of teaching or instruction is called
A) Initial or preparative assessment
B) Formal assessment
C) Formative assessment
D) Summative assessment
Answer Key:
A) Initial or preparative assessment
Q3. What kind of characteristic in an assessment measures what it is intended to measure
A) Valid
B) Invalid
C) Reliable
D) Unreliable
Answer Key:
A) Valid
Q4. A scoring guide is used to evaluate the qualitative performance of the student based on the different criteria
A) Rubrics
B) Checklist scale
C) Inventories
D) Notebook scale
Answer Key:
A) Rubrics
Q5. Test – Retest method is followed in the
A) Validity
B) Reliability
C) Usability
D) Objectivity
Answer Key:
B) Reliability
Q6. Consistency in the assessment refers to
A) Appropriate of the interpretation
B) Consistency of the assessment results
C) Administration of the test
D) Discrimination
Answer Key:
B) Consistency of the assessment results
Q7. Validity of the assessment tools refers to
A) Appropriate of the interpretation
B) Consistency of the assessment results
C) Administration of the test
D) Discrimination
Answer Key:
A) Appropriate of the interpretation
Q8. Affective domain objectives are referring to
A) Attitude
B) Motor skills
C) Knowledge outcomes
D) Intellectual abilities
Answer Key:
A) Attitude
Q9. Psychomotor domain objectives are referring to.
A) Attitude
B) Motor skills
C) Knowledge outcomes
D) Interests
Answer Key:
B) Motor skills
Q10. Cognitive domain objectives are referring to.
A) Attitude
B) Motor skills
C) Knowledge outcomes
D) Interests
Answer Key:
C) Knowledge outcomes
Q11. Entrance Examination for selection of candidates for an academic course should have.
A) Content validity
B) Construct Validity
C) Concurrent Validity
D) Predictive Validity
Answer Key:
D) Predictive Validity
Q12. Which is the most important of characteristic of a good testing tool is.
A) Validity
B) Objectivity
C) Discrimination
D) Comprehensiveness
Answer Key:
A) Validity
Q13. Which one of the following is major limitations of essay type of question.
A) Reliability of scoring
B) usability of scoring
C) Measure complex level learning outcome
D) None of the above
Answer Key:
A) Reliability of scoring
Q14. Which of the following refers to concurrent validity?
A) Two tests are done at the same time.
B) Two or more evaluators agree on the outcome.
C) The items on the test consistently relate to each other.
D) The notion that scores on a test correlate highly with scores from tests that measure the same attribute.
Answer Key:
D) The notion that scores on a test correlate highly with scores from tests that measure the same attribute.
Q15. Construct validity is a notion that refers to:
A) The notion that scores on a test correlate highly with scores from tests that measure the same attribute.
B) The level of which a construct is related to other similar measures.
C) The degree to which the items in the test consistently relate to each other.
D) The test will produce consistent results
Answer Key:
B) The level of which a construct is related to other similar measures.
Q16. ToS stands for
A) Table of Specialization
B) Table of Specification
C) Table of Summative
D) Table of Success
Answer Key:
B) Table of Specification
Q17. ToS is for
A) Standardized Test
B) Indirect Assessment
C) Preparative Assessment
D) Diagnostic Assessment
Answer Key:
A) Standardized Test
Q18. Ensuring the quality of the test tool is
A) Not essential
B) Essential
C) Essentia1only for summative assessment
D) Essential only for formative assessment
Answer Key:
B) Essential
Q19. The test is an instrument which used to measure
A) ability of the students
B) behaviour of the students on the content
C) capability of the students
D) capacity of the students
Answer Key:
B) behaviour of the students on the content
Q20. Attribute s of a good test is are
A) Validity
B) Reliability
C) Usability
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q21. The most relevant type of validity for the purpose of measurement of academic achievement is
A) Construct Validity
B) Criterion validity
C) Content validity
D) Conditional validity
Answer Key:
C) Content validity
Q22. ToS is ________ dimensional table
A) Single
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer Key:
B) Two
Q23. ToS relates to
A) Instructional objectives to the course content
B) Characteristics to the course content
C) Reliability to the validity
D) Reliability to the course content
Answer Key:
A) Instructional objectives to the course content
Q24. TOS Blueprint for the teachers, provides _______________ for setting the question paper for the test.
A) detailed content
B) detailed curriculum
C) detailed plan of action
D) detailed outcome
Answer Key:
C) detailed plan of action
Q25. Factors need to be considered to assign weightage
A) Usefulness of the content of the unit in the student’s job or everyday life
B) Validity
C) Reliability
D) Content in various level of Bloom’s Taxonomy
Answer Key:
A) Usefulness of the content of the unit in the student’s job or everyday life
Q26. In a negatively skewed distribution, the following statements are true EXCEPT
A) Median is lower than the Mode.
B) Mean is not higher than the Median.
C) Mode is less than the Median.
D) Mean is lower than the Mode.
Answer Key:
C) Mode is less than the Median.
Q27. If there are 26 out of 50 students with the correct response to item # 1, find the item’s difficulty index.
A) 0.24
B) 1.0
C) 1.92
D) 0.52
Answer Key:
D) 0.52
Q28. In a negatively skewed distribution, which of the following statements is true?
A) Mode is lower than the Mean.
B) Mean is lower than the Mode.
C) Median is higher than Mode.
D) Mode is lower than the Median.
Answer Key:
B) Mean is lower than the Mode.
Q29. In a positively skewed distribution, the following statements are true EXCEPT?
A) Mean is lower than the Mode.
B) Median is higher than Mode.
C) Mean is higher than the Median.
D) Mean is not lower than the Mode.
Answer Key:
A) Mean is lower than the Mode.
Q30. In a normal distribution, which of the following is true?
A) Median is not equal to Mode but is equal to mean.
B) Median is not equal to Mode and is not equal to mean.
C) Median is equal to Mode but not equal to mean.
D) Mean, Median and Mode are equal to one another
Answer Key:
D) Mean, Median and Mode are equal to one another
Q31. When the distribution is skewed to the right, what kind of test was administered?
A) Partly easy- partly difficult
B) Difficult
C) Easy
D) Average moderately difficult
Answer Key:
B) Difficult
Q32. Learning is a __________ that leads to change in Behaviour
A) Process
B) Product
C) Belief
D) Performance
Answer Key:
A) Process
Q33. Student’s ___________ determines, directs, and sustain their learning.
A) Motivation
B) Direction
C) Task
D) Behavior
Answer Key:
A) Motivation
Q34. Student’s __________ prior knowledge hinder learning and for any activity in the classroom.
A) Accurate
B) Sufficient
C) Inaccurate
D) Appropriate
Answer Key:
C) Inaccurate
Q35. Declarative knowledge can be thought of as
A) Doing what
B) Knowing what
C) Engaging
D) Characteristics
Answer Key:
B) Knowing what
Q36. Procedural knowledge is referred as
A) Knowing how
B) Knowing what
C) Describe
D) Characteristics
Answer Key:
A) Knowing how
Q37. Conceptual Knowledge can be referred as
A) Knowing how
B) Knowing what
C) Knowing why
D) Engaging
Answer Key:
C) Knowing why
Q38. Prior knowledge helps to
A) Avoid applying the knowledge to wrong context
B) Leads to applying the knowledge to wrong context
C) Obstruct Rethink inaccurate knowledge
D) Limit the understating
Answer Key:
A) Avoid applying the knowledge to wrong context
Q39. Google form can be used to
A) Prepare a survey
B) Publish the learning material
C) Demonstrate the virtual lab
D) Send a mail
Answer Key:
A) Prepare a survey
Q40. ____________ is used for prepare the rubrics.
A) Google Calendar
B) Rubistar
C) Hotpotatoes
D) Canvas
Answer Key:
B) Rubistar
Q41. What type of question allows you to select more than one answer?
A) Paragraph
B) Checkboxes
C) Multiple Choice
D) List
Answer Key:
B) Checkboxes
Q42. What Google Forms feature can give your work a more consistent and professional look?
A) Design Themes
B) Responses Tab
C) Color Palette
D) Common Forms
Answer Key:
A) Design Themes
Q43. Which of the following is NOT a Google Forms question type?
A) Short answer
B) Linear scale
C) Multiple Choice
D) True/False
Answer Key:
D) True/False
Q44. What feature is added to each question when you make a Google Form into a Quiz?
A) A Response Tab
B) Add Image option for the question
C) An Answer Key
D) A Required toggle switch
Answer Key:
C) An Answer Key
Q45. A common way to send or distribute your Google Form is
A) Copy questions to Google Docs
B) Print out the questions
C) Distribute using a PDF file
D) Share a link with users
Answer Key:
D) Share a link with users
Q46. What other Google application does Google Forms work with so that you can further analyze and manipulate the form responses?
A) Google Slides
B) Google Docs
C) Google Sheets
D) Google Maps
Answer Key:
C) Google Sheets
Q47. When does conditional branching occur in a section?
A) Before the user answers the question
B) After the user answers the question
C) When the user clicks the Next button in the section
D) When the user licks the Previous (Back) button in the section
Answer Key:
C) When the user clicks the Next button in the section
Q48. Which feature in Google Forms directs the user to another section of the form based on an answer to a question?
A) Response tab
B) Sections
C) Conditional Branching
D) Command Form
Answer Key:
C) Conditional Branching
Q49. Which of the following CANNOT be added to a Google Form?
A) Images
B) You Tube Videos
C) Word Documents
D) Sections
Answer Key:
C) Word Documents
Q50. Where do you go to create a Google Form?
A) Google Sheets
B) Google Drive
C) Google Sites
D) Google Mail
Answer Key:
B) Google Drive
Q51. Each learning outcome should begin with:
A) A learning verb
B) An action verb
C) A process verb
D) Any measurable or non-measurable verb
Answer Key:
B) An action verb
Q52. Which of the following verbs is at greatest risk for misinterpretation and very difficult to measure
A) List
B) Construct
C) Understand
D) Demonstrate
Answer Key:
C) Understand
Q53. Course content should be included in learning outcomes for promoting more clarity.
A) True
B) False
C) Partially true
D) None of the Above
Answer Key:
A) True
Q54. Higher order thinking outcomes address
A) Remember and Understand
B) Apply and Analyze
C) Select and Apply
D) Evaluate and Create
Answer Key:
D) Evaluate and Create
Q55. One purpose of a learning outcome is to
A) Communicate and demonstrate
B) Confuse the students
C) Question the teacher
D) Plan the study
Answer Key:
A) Communicate and demonstrate
Q56. which of the following is a component of a course outcome.
A) Content
B) Context
C) Behaviour
D) Learner
Answer Key:
A) Content
Q57. Which of the following is NOT a lower-level thinking process?
A) Reciting number facts
B) Writing spelling words
C) Matching states to their capitals
D) Explaining a concept in one’s own words
Answer Key:
D) Explaining a concept in one’s own words
Q58. What is the term used to describe outcome that require memorization?
A) Design an application
B) Recall a principle
C) Analysis of the principle
D) Evaluate the system
Answer Key:
B) Recall a principle
Q59. Cognitive assessments involve intellectual activities such as
A) feeling motivated.
B) problem solving.
C) playing a musical instrument.
D) maintaining self-control.
Answer Key:
B) problem solving.
Q60. Which of the following are the three steps in the instructional process?
A) Planning instruction, delivering the instruction, and assessing learning outcomes
B) Planning instruction, selecting a textbook, and assessing the learning outcomes.
C) Planning instruction, assessing learning outcomes, and reporting to parents.
D) Selecting a textbook, assessing learning outcomes, and delivering instruction.
Answer Key:
A) Planning instruction, delivering the instruction, and assessing learning outcomes
Q61. Which assessment procedures) gives the exact outcome of the student
A) Only direct assessment
B) Only indirect assessment
C) Combination of direct and indirect assessment
D) Neither direct assessment nor indirect assessment
Answer Key:
C) Combination of direct and indirect assessment
Q62. Which of the following answer will be under direction assessment methodology.
1. Standard Test
2. Simulation of Experiment
3. Quiz
4. Learning experience
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Answer Key:
C) 1, 2 and 3
Q63. which assessment procedure can be used to find out the interest rate of the student in a particular subject
A) Direct assessment
B) Indirect assessment
C) Combination of direct and indirect assessment
D) Neither direct assessment nor indirect assessment
Answer Key:
B) Indirect assessment
Q64. Supply type item is used to assess
1. Student’s creativity in organize the answer
2. Problem solving skills
3. Recall the collect answer
4. Correctness of a student
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Answer Key:
A) 1 and 2
Q65. The fundamental purpose of selection type item to assess the
1. Student’s creativity in Analysis the system
2. Complex problem solving skills
3. Recall ability of the student
4. Basic understanding ability
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer Key:
B) 3 and 4
Q66. Which of the following answer is correct?
A) Completion type item can measure higher levels of cognitive ability
B) Completion type item can usually under the selection type
C) Completion type items are very difficult to construct
D) Completion type items can measure lower order of cognitive ability.
Answer Key:
D) Completion type items can measure lower order of cognitive ability.
Q67. Which of the following is correct to set short answer question?
A) Define Bernoulli distribution
B) What is Bernoulli distribution
C) Write you know all about Bernoulli distribution
D) Explain in details about Bernoulli distribution.
Answer Key:
A) Define Bernoulli distribution
Q68. Structured essay question is more appropriate than fully open ended essay type of question, the reason is to.
A) Decrease the reliability
B) Decrease the validity
C) Increase the ambiguity
D) Increase the reliability and validity
Answer Key:
D) Increase the reliability and validity
Q69. Which of the following question type is also known as open ended questions.
(1) Short Answer type question
(2) Multiple Choice Question
(3) Match the following question
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer Key:
A) 1 only
Q60. Match
| Premises | Responses |
| 1. Completion | i) It can be used as a part of formative and summative assessment with limited answer |
| 2. Short answer | ii) In these types of questions are noted for their ambiguity and vagueness |
| 3. Essay | iii) Measure lower levels of cognitive ability |
| iv) Problem solving skills |
A) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
B) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
C) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv
Answer Key:
D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv
Q71. The higher order and complex learning outcomes could be tested by.
A) Completion type question
B) Short answer type question
C) MCQ type question
D) Numerical Problem Solving type question
Answer Key:
D) Numerical Problem Solving type question
Q72. Standardized test are ________?
A) Conducted with standard conditions
B) Questioning in the classroom
C) Observing the students in the classroom
D) Informal assessment
Answer Key:
A) Conducted with standard conditions
Q73. The method that provides scope for students to work in groups is called is
A) Simple Assignment
B) Seminar
C) Tutorial
D) Discussion
Answer Key:
D) Discussion
Q74. What advantages do objective type tests have over essay type of test
A) Easier to interpret
B) Require less technical knowledge
C) Sampling content can be wider
D) Takes less time to prepare
Answer Key:
C) Sampling content can be wider
Q75. Which is the NOT a correct statement
A) The stem should be meaningful by itself
B) The stem should not contain irrelevant material
C) The stem should be a question or a partial sentence
D) All alternatives should not be plausible
Answer Key:
D) All alternatives should not be plausible
Q76. ___________ weightage has to be given for some of the units which need high retention rates to understand the other subjects in the same programme.
A) More
B) Less
C) Equal
D) No
Answer Key:
A) More
Q77. Arrange the following steps involved in the preparation of ToS.
(i) List the content to be tested
(ii) Determination of learning objectives
(iii) Determining the different form of Questions
(iv) Distribution of no. of questions for each unit
(v) Distribute the question based on the level of learning objectives
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii), (v)
C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv)
Answer Key:
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
Q78. Analyse refers to the ability to
A) make judgments about the merits of ideas
B) break down a whole into component parts
C) use learned material in new and concrete situations
D) put parts together to form a new and integrated whole
Answer Key:
B) break down a whole into component parts
Q79. Once ToS is prepared for the subject, it _____________ for each and every exam
A) should be changed
B) should not be changed
C) may be changed
D) depends content selected
Answer Key:
B) should not be changed
Q80. The preparation of question paper for the summative assessment is mainly based on
A) Level of the Domain
B) Table of Specification
C) Content
D) Objectives
Answer Key:
B) Table of Specification
Q81. Norm Referenced Test emphasize
A) Discrimination among individuals in terms of relative level of learning
B) Measuring each specific task
C) Without altering the learning difficulty
D) Delimited achievement domain
Answer Key:
A) Discrimination among individuals in terms of relative level of learning
Q82. Which test is designed to measure student’s performance according to a specific achievement
A) Criterion Referenced Test
B) Norm Referenced Test
C) Achievement Test
D) Diagnostic Test
Answer Key:
A) Criterion Referenced Test
Q83. Which test is designed to rank and compares students in relation to one another?
A) Criterion Referenced Test
B) Norm Referenced Test
C) Achievement Test
D) Diagnostic Test
Answer Key:
B) Norm Referenced Test
Q84. __________ is a collection of electronic evidence assembled and managed by a user demonstrating his/her abilities and platforms for self-reflection.
A) E-mail
B) e-portfolio
C) Wikipedia
D) Programmed learning
Answer Key:
B) e-portfolio
Q85. A student portfolio is a ______________ of pieces of student work.
A) Computer File
B) Purposeful collection
C) System folder
D) Location
Answer Key:
B) Purposeful collection
Q86. Which one of the following is NOT the guideline of the portfolio?
A) The uses that will be made of the portfolio
B) Who will have access to it
C) What kind of work appropriate to include
D) Parent details
Answer Key:
C) What kind of work appropriate to include
Q87. Question item discriminating index D is equal to
A) The difference between proportion of examinees in the top group getting the item correct and proportion of examinees in the bottom group getting the item correct
B) The multiplication of between proportion of examinees in the bottom group getting the item correct and proportion of examinees in the top group getting the item correct
C) The summation of proportion of examinees in the bottom group getting the item correct and proportion of examinees in the top group getting the item correct
D) Number of examines correctly answered the item divided by total number of candidates
Answer Key:
A) The difference between proportion of examinees in the top group getting the item correct and proportion of examinees in the bottom group getting the item correct
Q88. The formula for computing item difficulty (P- item difficulty, R- number of students got right, T- Number of students who tried)
A) P= 100 * R /T
B) P = T*100/R
C) P= R*T /100
D) P= T*R/ (T*100)
Answer Key:
A) P= 100 * R /T
Q89. Item analysis data will lead to
A) Standardize the test items
B) Motivate the students
C) Self-learning exercise
D) Help the controller of Examination to conduct the exam
Answer Key:
A) Standardize the test items
Q90. Solve a problem with standard formulae and getting the correct solution is
A) Creative problem
B) Open ended Problem
C) Closed Ended Problem
D) Innovative problem
Answer Key:
C) Closed Ended Problem
Q91. Solve a problem with multiple strategies or not with standard formulae and get the correct solution.
A) Open Ended Problem
B) Closed Ended problem
C) Questioning problem
D) Problem with lower order ability
Answer Key:
A) Open Ended Problem
Q92. The content of a portfolio is largely based on
A) the goal and purpose of the portfolio
B) the characteristics of the student evaluated
C) the length of the portfolio
D) none of the above
Answer Key:
A) the goal and purpose of the portfolio
Q93. In portfolio assessment, a benchmark is used to
A) increase the validity of a rubric
B) increase the reliability of a rubric
C) increase the length of a rubric
D) increase the number of criteria of a rubric
Answer Key:
A) increase the validity of a rubric
Q94. Which is an example of a student portfolio assessment?
A) Evaluating student work
B) Show student growth over time
C) Showing growth and exemplary work
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q95. Which of the following is NOT a form of measurement validity?
A) Concurrent validity
B) Face validity
C) Content validity
D) Construct validity
Answer Key:
C) Content validity
Q96. The result of the test given by Teacher A showed a negatively skewed distribution. What kind of test did Teacher A give?
A) The test is difficult.
B) It is easy.
C) It is moderately difficult.
D) It is not too easy nor too difficult.
Answer Key:
B) It is easy.
Q97. Which is implied by a positively skewed scores distribution?
A) The mode is high.
B) The mean, the median, and the mode are equal.
C) Most of the scores are high.
D) Most of the scores are low.
Answer Key:
D) Most of the scores are low.
Q98. If a test item has a difficulty index of 0.06, how would you describe the test item?
A) It is very difficult.
B) It is moderately difficult.
C) It is very easy.
D) It is difficult.
Answer Key:
A) It is very difficult.
Q99. If the proportion passing for the upper and lower group is 0.90 and 0.30 respectively, what is the discrimination index?
A) 0.60
B) 0.50
C) 0.70
D) 0.40
Answer Key:
A) 0.60
Q100. Which of the following actions would you take for an item whose difficulty index is 0.65?
A) Retain or include the test item.
B) Discard the test item.
C) Revise or change the test item.
D) Replace the test item
Answer Key:
A) Retain or include the test item.
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Module 6 Previous Year Questions: