Module 6 Previous Year Questions:
Q1) What is the primary purpose of Diagnostic Assessment in student assessment and evaluation?
A) Evaluating students’ overall performance at the end of the term.
B) Identifying specific areas of strength and weakness in students’ understanding at the beginning of a learning period.
C) Comparing students’ achievements against a set of standards.
D) Assigning grades based on students’ daily class activities.
Answer Key:
B) Identifying specific areas of strength and weakness in students’ understanding at the beginning of a learning period.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of preparative assessment?
A) It is used to assign final grades
B) It focuses on measuring students’ final achievements
C) It helps in planning instruction by understanding students’ current knowledge levels
D) It is only conducted at the end of the academic year
Answer Key:
C) It helps in planning instruction by understanding students’ current knowledge levels
Q3) What does the “language of assessment” primarily refer to?
A) The literal language used in the assessment
B) The technical terms and concepts used in assessment instructions and questions
C) The body language of the examiner
D) The dialect of the region where the assessment is conducted
Answer Key:
B) The technical terms and concepts used in assessment instructions and questions
Q4) In a Table of Specification, which factor helps to decide how many questions should assess higher-order thinking skills
A) The length of the class
B) The total number of students
C) The emphasis on cognitive domains in the curriculum and learning goals
D) The availability of textbooks
Answer Key:
C) The emphasis on cognitive domains in the curriculum and learning goals
Q5) In the two-dimensional mapping approach, how are instructional objectives and cognitive complexity levels typically represented?
A) Instructional objectives on one axis, and student performance on the other axis
B) Bloom’s Taxonomy on one axis, and assessment duration on the other axis
C) Instructional materials on one axis, and learning outcomes on the other axis
D) Instructional objectives on one axis, and cognitive complexity levels on the other axis
Answer Key:
D) Instructional objectives on one axis, and cognitive complexity levels on the other axis
Q6) Behaviour theorists define the learning as acquisition of ____________
A) new behaviour through stimuli and response
B) explore old behaviour with few modifications
C) experiences in the activity
D) mental process
Answer Key:
A) new behaviour through stimuli and response
Q7) Which of the following is a key feature of diagnostic assessment?
A) Standardized testing
B) Focus on future performance and improvement
C) High-stakes testing
D) Summarizing the overall learning
Answer Key:
B) Focus on future performance and improvement
Q8) What kind of characteristic in an assessment measures what it is intended to measure or supposed to measure
A) Valid
B) Invalid
C) Reliable
D) Unreliable
Answer Key:
A) Valid
Q9) Learning is a __________ that leads to change in Behaviour
A) Process
B) Product
C) Belief
D) Performance
Answer Key:
A) Process
Q10) Teacher to start a new lesson with few questions and at one point the student not able to answer then the teacher start a new lesson. This kind of questions are in the category of
A) Leading Questions
B) Closed End Question
C) Rhetorical questions
D) Open End Questions
Answer Key:
A) Leading Questions
Q11) Which of the following best describes the primary characteristic of formative assessment in student evaluation?
A) A conclusive evaluation at the end of the learning period.
B) Regular feedback provided to students during the learning process.
C) Assessments focused solely on students’ strengths.
D) A static and unchanging approach to teaching.
Answer Key:
B) Regular feedback provided to students during the learning process.
Q12) Faculty member uses a set of conceptual questions to assess students understanding of fundamental concepts at the start of the course is ________________
A) Formative assessment
B) Continuous Assessment
C) Diagnostic Assessment
D) Summative Assessment
Answer Key:
A) Formative assessment
Q13) When is a preparative assessment typically administered?
A) Before beginning a new unit or lesson
B) After the final exam
C) During the end-of-term exams
D) Only when a student fails a test
Answer Key:
A) Before beginning a new unit or lesson
Q14) If students are commonly not performing well in the assessment, then the teacher should
A) Make changes in the instruction
B) Change the seating arrangement of the students
C) Provide question bank to the students
D) Provide question bank and answer key to the students
Answer Key:
A) Make changes in the instruction
Q15) Which kind of assessment is used by the teacher to grade the student after the examination.
A) Preparative Assessment
B) Diagnostic Assessment
C) Formative Assessment
D) Summative Assessment
Answer Key:
D) Summative Assessment
Q16) Faculty member use the Assessment for Learning and Assessment of Learning to _______
A) Know learning need of the student
B) Assess the student performance at periodic interval
C) Assess the student progress and fill the learning gap
D) Check the final achievement of a student
Answer Key:
C) Assess the student progress and fill the learning gap
Q17) What is the primary purpose of diagnostic assessment?
A) To rank students by performance
B) To evaluate the effectiveness of a teaching program
C) To identify students’ strengths and weaknesses in specific areas
D) To assign final grades to students
Answer Key:
C) To identify students’ strengths and weaknesses in specific areas
Q18) Which of the following is a strategy to ensure fairness in the language of assessment?
A) Using only formal academic language
B) Including translations for all terms used in the assessment
C) Avoiding idiomatic expressions and colloquialisms
D) Using regional slang and local expressions
Answer Key:
C) Avoiding idiomatic expressions and colloquialisms
Q19) Student’s __________ prior knowledge hinder learning and for any activity in the classroom
A) Accurate
B) Sufficient
C) Inaccurate
D) Appropriate
Answer Key:
C) Inaccurate
Q20) A teacher uses a case study to assess students’ application of knowledge. This assessment is an example of:
A) Formative assessment
B) Summative assessment
C) Authentic assessment
D) Norm-referenced assessment
Answer Key:
C) Authentic assessment
Q21) Why is it important for assessment objectives to align with instructional goals?
A) To communicate expectations effectively.
B) To specify assessment methods.
C) To ensure valid and reliable assessments.
D) To facilitate periodic review and revision.
Answer Key:
C) To ensure valid and reliable assessments.
Q22) Teaching is a __________, where effective teachers can organize the environment to provide students with active and authentic tasks which aims to meet the outcomes at end of the instruction
A) Process
B) Product
C) Belief
D) Experience
Answer Key:
A) Process
Q23) When the learning objective to be acceptable, it should be_______
A) observable and high-level
B) observable and clear
C) high-level and clear
D) observable, high-level, and clear
Answer Key:
B) observable and clear
Q24) Why is it important for students to develop procedural knowledge?
A) It helps them memorize facts more efficiently
B) It enables them to perform tasks and solve problems effectively
C) It improves their handwriting skills
D) It assists them in rote learning
Answer Key:
B) It enables them to perform tasks and solve problems effectively
Q25) In the question paper, supply type question item can be used to assess the ______________ ability.
(i) Student’s creativity in organizing the answer
(ii) Problem solving skills
(iii) Recall the correct answer through MCQ
(iv) Correctness of the statement using True or False
A) (i) and (ii)
B) (iii) and (iv)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer Key:
A) (i) and (ii)
Q26) Constructive feedback should be:
A) Negative and corrective
B) Positive and encouraging
C) Balanced, focusing on both strengths and areas for improvement
D) Focused only on areas for improvement
Answer Key:
C) Balanced, focusing on both strengths and areas for improvement
Q27) A learning outcome must be a ____________
A) Reference to the teacher to what to deliver in the class
B) a measurable statement achieved by the student
C) probing statement to get the answer
D) hyphenated statements to complete the syllabus
Answer Key:
B) a measurable statement achieved by the student
Q28) The reliability of an assessment refers to:
A) The accuracy of the interpretation of results
B) The consistency of the assessment results over time.
C) The difficulty level of the test.
D) The number of questions in the test.
Answer Key:
B) The consistency of the assessment results over time.
Q29) Given below are steps involved in implementing peer assessment. Arrange them in the correct sequence.
(A). Establish clear criteria and guidelines for assessment.
(B). Provide students with training on the peer assessment process.
(C). Facilitate a structured peer review session.
(D). Collect and analyze peer feedback.
(E). Communicate the purpose and expectations of peer assessment to students.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E).
B) (A), (B), (E), (C), (D).
C) (C), (A), (E), (B), (D).
D) (E), (C), (B), (D), (A).
Answer Key:
C) (C), (A), (E), (B), (D).
Q30) Test – Retest method is followed in the
A) Validity
B) Reliability
C) Usability
D) Objectivity
Answer Key:
B) Reliability
Q31) Which of the following is a characteristic of a good test item?
A) Ambiguity
B) Bias
C) Clarity
D) Complexity
Answer Key:
C) Clarity
Q32) Which is implied by a positively skewed scores distribution?
A) The mode is high
B) The mean, the median, and the mode are equal.
C) Most of the scores are high.
D) Most of the scores are low.
Answer Key:
D) Most of the scores are low.
Q33) Which of the following is an example of procedural knowledge?
A) Knowing the formula for calculating the area of a triangle
B) Understanding the concept of gravity
C) Knowing how to conduct a scientific experiment step-by-step
D) Remembering the dates of historical events
Answer Key:
C) Knowing how to conduct a scientific experiment step-by-step
Q34) Which action contributes to the measurability and observability of objectives in assessment?
A) Communicating expectations to students.
B) Aligning with standards and criteria.
C) Specifying assessment methods.
D) Periodically reviewing and revising.
Answer Key:
C) Specifying assessment methods.
Q35) The Dichotomous questions required ___________
A) detail answer for the question
B) Simple Boolean type of answer to the question
C) facts and figures of the subject
D) different learning difficulties of the subject
Answer Key:
B) Simple Boolean type of answer to the question
Q36) Which test is designed to measure the student’s performance according to a specific achievement?
A) Criterion Referenced Test
B) Norm Referenced Test
C) Achievement Test
D) Diagnostic Test
Answer Key:
A) Criterion Referenced Test
Q37) Which of the following is an essential component of diagnostic assessment?
A) Evaluating students’ performance at the end of the course
B) Determining students’ readiness for learning new content
C) Monitoring student learning progress during instruction
D) Assigning final grades based on performance
Answer Key:
B) Determining students’ readiness for learning new content
Q38) Considering the key aspects of determining objectives in the dimensional learn-assess approach, which combination reflects a well-crafted assessment objective?
A) An objective demanding memorization without specifying the cognitive level.
B) An objective emphasizing real-world application but lacking clarity and specificity.
C) An objective aligned with learning outcomes, clear and specific, targeting higher-order cognitive skills.
D) An objective focusing on measurability while neglecting alignment with learning outcomes.
Answer Key:
C) An objective aligned with learning outcomes, clear and specific, targeting higher-order cognitive skills.
Q39) Why is it important for students to engage in reflective practices regarding their learning experiences?
A) To memorize content more effectively.
B) To demonstrate rote memorization skills.
C) To enhance metacognitive skills and self-awareness.
D) To avoid participating in classroom discussions.
Answer Key:
C) To enhance metacognitive skills and self-awareness.
Q40) ToS relates to
A) Instructional objectives to the course content
B) Specific questions to the level of learning
C) Course objectives to the instructional strategies
D) Content of the course to the learning outcomes
Answer Key:
A) Instructional objectives to the course content
Q41) Match
| Premises | Responses |
| 1. Completion | i) It can be used as a part of formative and summative assessment with limited answer |
| 2. Short answer | ii) In these types of questions are noted for their ambiguity and vagueness |
| 3. Essay | iii) Measure lower levels of cognitive ability |
| iv) Problem solving skills |
A) 1-ii,2-iii,3-i
B) 1-iii,2-i,3-ii
C) 1-i,2-ii,3-iii
D) 1-iii,2-i,3-iv
Answer Key:
D) 1-iii,2-i,3-iv
Q42) When you are writing the learning outcome, the learning outcome should begin with
A) A learning verb
B) A measurable action verb
C) A process verb
D) A list
Answer Key:
B) A measurable action verb
Q43) A Table of Specification links which two important elements of assessment?
A) Content areas and learning objectives
B) Time management and question difficulty
C) Content areas and cognitive levels
D) Student performance and grading
Answer Key:
C) Content areas and cognitive levels
Q44) What should be done to enhance the objectivity of scoring in an achievement test?
A) Use more open-ended questions
B) Develop a detailed scoring key or rubric
C) Allow subjective evaluation by different teachers
D) Use only essay-type questions
Answer Key:
B) Develop a detailed scoring key or rubric
Q45) What type of assessment focuses on comparing a student’s performance against a set standard or criteria?
A) Criterion-referenced assessment
B) Norm-referenced assessment
C) Diagnostic assessment
D) Formative assessment
Answer Key:
A) Criterion-referenced assessment
Q46) Match the steps involved in the construction of an achievement test with their corresponding descriptions.
| List-I | List-II |
| Steps in Construction | Descriptions |
| (A). Clearly articulate educational objectives. | (I). Define Objectives and Learning Outcomes |
| (B). Identify content areas for coverage. | (II). Select Appropriate Content |
| (C). Determine the types of questions or tasks for the test. | (III). Choose Test Formats |
| (D). Create individual test items based on chosen formats. | (IV). Develop Test Items |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
B) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
C) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
D) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
Answer Key:
A) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
Q47) Which of the following is a characteristic of supply type questions in student assessment?
A) Students choose the correct answer from provided options.
B) Students generate their own responses.
C) Questions are more open-ended and subjective.
D) Both A and C.
Answer Key:
B) Students generate their own responses.
Q48) Which domain of learning includes emotional responses?
A) Cognitive
B) Affective
C) Psychomotor
D) Behavioral
Answer Key:
B) Affective
Q49) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good achievement test?
A) Validity
B) Ambiguity
C) Reliability
D) Objectivity
Answer Key:
B) Ambiguity
Q50) Which of the following best describes typical performance in student assessment and evaluation?
A) It represents the highest level of achievement a student can demonstrate.
B) It considers variations in a student’s performance over time and in different situations.
C) It focuses on setting unrealistic expectations for students.
D) It ignores external factors that may influence a student’s performance.
Answer Key:
B) It considers variations in a student’s performance over time and in different situations.
Q51) Which assessment method is most suitable for measuring higher-order cognitive skills?
A) Multiple-choice questions
B) Short answer questions
C) Essay questions
D) True/False questions
Answer Key:
C) Essay questions
Q52) A faculty member should understand the students errors which indicate the
A) Need for differentiated curriculum
B) Extent of their knowledge
C) Need of remedial strategies
D) Requirement of pathways for ability grouping
Answer Key:
C) Need of remedial strategies
Q53) In the learning outcome, one of the components is
A) Content
B) Question
C) Answer
D) An output
Answer Key:
A) Content
Q54) Which type of test item is most suitable for assessing the ability to recall factual information?
A) Multiple Choice
B) Essay
C) True or False
D) Matching
Answer Key:
C) True or False
Q55) What does the term “maximum performance” refer to in the context of student assessment and evaluation?
A) The lowest level of achievement a student can demonstrate.
B) The average performance of a student over time.
C) The highest level of achievement or competence a student can demonstrate under ideal conditions.
D) The performance of a student when hindered by external factors.
Answer Key:
C) The highest level of achievement or competence a student can demonstrate under ideal conditions.
Q56) Which of the following best describes a short answer question?
A) Requires a paragraph or more to answer
B) Has only one possible correct answer
C) Requires a brief response, usually a word or phrase
D) Involves selecting from multiple choices
Answer Key:
C) Requires a brief response, usually a word or phrase
Q57) Which type of question allows for multiple correct answers?
A) True/False
B) Matching
C) Multiple-choice
D) Open-ended
Answer Key:
D) Open-ended
Q58) Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
A) What is the capital of France?
B) How do you define success?
C) Is the sky blue?
D) Who was the first president of the USA?
Answer Key:
B) How do you define success?
Q59) Which of the following is the short answer question item
A) K-Type question item
B) Multiple response question item
C) Explain question item
D) Definition question item
Answer Key:
D) Definition question item
Q60) Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other one labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Procedural knowledge questions focus on evaluating a student’s ability to follow a sequence of steps.
Reason (R) : This is distinct from conceptual questions, which assess understanding of underlying principles and theories.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
C) The assertion is true, but the reasoning is false.
D) The assertion is false, but the reasoning is true.
Answer Key:
A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Q61) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Matching Type Questions are effective for assessing recognition, association, and knowledge of relationships.”
Reason (R) : “This format requires students to link items in one column with corresponding items in another, testing their understanding of connections.”
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A) Both the assertion and reasoning are true, and the reasoning is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both the assertion and reasoning are true, but the reasoning is NOT the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) The assertion is true, but the reasoning is false.
D) The assertion is false, but the reasoning is true.
Answer Key:
B) Both the assertion and reasoning are true, but the reasoning is NOT the correct explanation of the assertion.
Q62) Which of the following best describes the concept of “connect the item type with context” in student assessments?
A) Memorization of facts
B) Linking theoretical knowledge with practical situations
C) True/false evaluations
D) Identifying common patterns
Answer Key:
B) Linking theoretical knowledge with practical situations
Q63) Which of the following is NOT a Google Forms question type?
A) Paragraph
B) Short Answer
C) Multiple Choice
D) True/False
Answer Key:
D) True/False
Q64) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good assessment?
A) Validity
B) Reliability
C) Bias
D) Fairness
Answer Key:
C) Bias
Q65) Solve a problem with multiple strategies or not with standard formulae and get the correct solution
A) Open Ended Problem
B) Closed Ended problem
C) Questioning problem
D) Problem with lower order ability
Answer Key:
A) Open Ended Problem
Q66) Which of the following is a key component of a table of specifications?
A) Test length
B) Test taker’s demographics
C) Content areas and cognitive levels
D) Answer key
Answer Key:
C) Content areas and cognitive levels
Q67) Which statement about a Table of Specification is correct?
A) It is only used for summative assessments.
B) It is created after the test is administered to students.
C) It is a plan that outlines the content areas and cognitive levels of questions in an exam.
D) It focuses solely on the time management aspect of the exam.
Answer Key:
C) It is a plan that outlines the content areas and cognitive levels of questions in an exam.
Q68) Match List-I with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
| (A). Weightage | (I). Identification of the types of questions or tasks that will be included in the assessment. For example, specifying the inclusion of multiple-choice questions, short-answer questions, essay questions, or practical tasks. |
| (B). Scoring Criteria | (II). Allocation of specific weights or percentage to different modules, topics, or cognitive levels within the assessment. This indicates the relative importance of each component in determining the overall score. |
| (C). Types of Questions | (III). Allocation of specific weights or percentages to different modules, topics, or cognitive levels within the assessment. This indicates the relative importance of each component in determining the overall score. |
| (D). Time Allocation | (IV). Allocation of time for each section or module of the assessment. This ensures that the assessment is administered within a reasonable time frame and that students have sufficient time to complete each section. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
B) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
C) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
D) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
Answer Key:
D) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
Q69) How does a Table of Specification help in the assessment process?
A) By randomly selecting topics for the exam
B) By providing a detailed content outline for each subject area
C) By ensuring that all questions are of the same type
D) By ensuring alignment between learning objectives, instructional content, and assessment items
Answer Key:
D) By ensuring alignment between learning objectives, instructional content, and assessment items
Q70) What type of information is typically organized in the columns of a table of specifications?
A) The names of students
B) The test scores
C) The content areas or topics and their corresponding cognitive levels
D) The answers to test questions
Answer Key:
C) The content areas or topics and their corresponding cognitive levels
Q71) The importance of a blueprint in question paper setting is to ________________
A) ensure equal marks distribution
B) prevent question repetition
C) align the paper with learning outcomes and helps in balanced question distribution
D) make marking easier
Answer Key:
C) align the paper with learning outcomes and helps in balanced question distribution
Q72) Which element is generally considered in the “Teamwork” criterion of an internship rubric?
A) Intern’s leadership skills
B) Level of interaction and contribution to team projects
C) Knowledge of team members’ backgrounds
D) Submission of individual assignments on time
Answer Key:
A) Intern’s leadership skills
Q73) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose and features of a checklist in student assessment and evaluation?
A) Checklists are primarily designed for subjective observation, allowing assessors to provide qualitative feedback on student performance.
B) Checklists involve specific criteria related to students’ performance and are organized in a list format for objective observation, scoring, and structured evaluation.
C) The main purpose of checklists is to assess theoretical knowledge, while their features include numerical ratings and subjective recording mechanisms.
D) Checklists are exclusively used for tracking students’ progress in theoretical subjects and are not adaptable to various assessment contexts
Answer Key:
B) Checklists involve specific criteria related to students’ performance and are organized in a list format for objective observation, scoring, and structured evaluation.
Q74) Which of the following best describes a reflective teacher?
A) One who continually evaluates their teaching practices
B) One who sticks to a fixed lesson plan
C) One who focuses solely on content delivery
D) One who avoids student feedback
Answer Key:
A) One who continually evaluates their teaching practices
Q75) What is the primary role of descriptors in rubrics for student assessment and evaluation?
A) Setting learning objectives
B) Providing detailed information about different levels of performance within each criterion
C) Creating a standardized basis for assessing student performance
D) Highlighting the differences in quality, depth, or complexity of responses
Answer Key:
B) Providing detailed information about different levels of performance within each criterion
Q76) What does the “Consolidation of Rubric Values” involve in the assessment of B.Tech, M.Tech, or PhD theses?
A) Individual assessment by a single assessor
B) Combining scores or evaluations provided by assessors based on a rubric
C) Ignoring qualitative feedback from assessors
D) Excluding quality assurance measures in the consolidation process
Answer Key:
B) Combining scores or evaluations provided by assessors based on a rubric
Q77) Your laboratory assessment can be considered as
A) Quantitative Assessment
B) Performance Assessment
C) Formative Assessment
D) Instructional assessment
Answer Key:
B) Performance Assessment
Q78) Which of the following is a key component of a rubric in student assessment and evaluation?
A) Learning Objectives
B) Levels of Achievement
C) Clarity and Transparency
D) Efficient Grading
Answer Key:
B) Levels of Achievement
Q79) Which domain of Bloom’s taxonomy involves the ability to use learned material in new situations?
A) Remembering
B) Understanding
C) Applying
D) Evaluating
Answer Key:
C) Applying
Q80) What is the primary purpose of using rubrics in assessment?
A) To provide grades only
B) To clarify expectations and provide consistent criteria for evaluation
C) To reduce the time taken for grading
D) To create confusion among students
Answer Key:
B) To clarify expectations and provide consistent criteria for evaluation
Q81) Why might a teacher choose to use a rating scale with descriptive labels (e.g., “Needs Improvement,” “Satisfactory,” “Outstanding”)?
A) To simplify grading by removing numeric scores
B) To provide more qualitative feedback to students
C) To eliminate bias from assessments
D) To standardize grades across all subjects
Answer Key:
B) To provide more qualitative feedback to students
Q82) A student portfolio is a ______________ of pieces of student work
A) Computer File
B) Purposeful collection
C) System folder
D) Location
Answer Key:
B) Purposeful collection
Q83) What does the reliability of an assessment refer to?
A) The assessment’s ability to be completed quickly
B) The consistency of assessment results over time
C) The difficulty level of the questions
D) The ability to guess the answers correctly
Answer Key:
B) The consistency of assessment results over time
Q84) What is the main goal of using performance-based assessments?
A) To rank students
B) To assess students’ knowledge in isolation
C) To evaluate students’ ability to apply skills in real-world contexts
D) To measure students’ memorization of facts
Answer Key:
C) To evaluate students’ ability to apply skills in real-world contexts
Q85) What is a key characteristic of the evaluation of portfolios in student assessment and evaluation?
A) Exclusively focusing on individual pieces within the portfolio.
B) Emphasizing a narrow range of artifacts to ensure consistency.
C) Overlooking the alignment of portfolio content with learning objectives.
D) Conducting a holistic assessment, considering the overall quality and coherence of the collection.
Answer Key:
D) Conducting a holistic assessment, considering the overall quality and coherence of the collection.
Q86) What is the primary focus of “Logical Validity” in the context of student assessment and evaluation?
A) Assessing the effectiveness and accuracy of an assessment tool.
B) Subjective judgment about whether the assessment appears to measure what it is intended to measure.
C) Use of statistical methods to determine the underlying construct or skill being measured.
D) Analyzing the correlation between test scores and other measures of comprehension.
Answer Key:
B) Subjective judgment about whether the assessment appears to measure what it is intended to measure.
Q87) The most relevant type of validity for the purpose of measurement of academic achievement is
A) Construct Validity
B) Criterion validity
C) Content validity
D) Conditional validity
Answer Key:
C) Content validity
Q88) A well-constructed Table of Specification ensures that assessments
A) Focus only on low-level cognitive skills
B) Balance the number of easy and difficult questions
C) Emphasize only content knowledge
D) Exclude any form of higher-order thinking
Answer Key:
B) Balance the number of easy and difficult questions
Q89) Which is the most important of characteristic of a good testing tool is.
A) Validity
B) Objectivity
C) Discrimination
D) Comprehensiveness
Answer Key:
A) Validity
Q90) If an assessment is designed to measure higher-order thinking skills, such as analysis and evaluation, it demonstrates which characteristic?
A) Validity
B) Objectivity
C) Relevance
D) Difficulty
Answer Key:
A) Validity
Q91) If an item analysis reveals that most high-scoring students answered a particular question incorrectly, what should the instructor consider doing?
A) Removing the item from the test
B) Lowering the difficulty level of the item
C) Including more items like this in future tests
D) Ignoring the result
Answer Key:
A) Removing the item from the test
Q92) The formula for computing item difficulty (P- item difficulty, R- number of students got right, T- Number of students who tried)
A) P= 100 * R /T
B) P = T*100/R
C) P= R*T /100
D) P= T*R/ (T*100)
Answer Key:
A) P= 100 * R /T
Q93) Question item discriminating index D is equal to
A) The difference between proportion of examinees in the top group getting the item correct and proportion of examinees in the bottom group getting the item correct
B) The multiplication of between proportion of examinees in the bottom group getting the item correct and proportion of examinees in the top group getting the item correct
C) The summation of proportion of examinees in the bottom group getting the item correct and proportion of examinees in the top group getting the item correct
D) Number of examines correctly answered the item divided by total number of candidates
Answer Key:
A) The difference between proportion of examinees in the top group getting the item correct and proportion of examinees in the bottom group getting the item correct
Q94) If the proportion passing for the upper and lower group is 0.90 and 0.30 respectively, what is the discrimination index?
A) 0.60
B) 1.20
C) 0.76
D) 0.42
Answer Key:
A) 0.60
Q95) If there are 26 out of 50 students with the correct response to item # 1, find the item’s difficulty index.
A) 0.24
B) 1.0
C) 1.92
D) 0.52
Answer Key:
D) 0.52
Q96) Analyse refers to the ability to
A) Make judgments about the merits of ideas
B) break down a whole into component parts
C) use learned material in new and concrete situations
D) put parts together to form a new and integrated whole
Answer Key:
B) break down a whole into component parts
Q97) Which of the following FOSS tools is widely used for creating and administering quizzes in formative assessments?
A) Moodle
B) Photoshop
C) Microsoft Teams
D) Zoom
Answer Key:
A) Moodle
Q98) Which of the following FOSS tools can be used for managing and conducting both preparative and formative assessments online?
A) Blackboard
B) Moodle
C) Google Classroom
D) Microsoft Teams
Answer Key:
B) Moodle
Q99) What is the primary benefit of using Artificial Intelligence (AI) in assessments?
A) Reduces the need for internet connectivity
B) Provides instant feedback and personalized learning
C) Creates a virtual learning environment
D) Enhances the physical learning space
Answer Key:
B) Provides instant feedback and personalized learning
Q100) Which software used for self- assessment
A) OBS
B) Rubi star
C) Hot potatoes
D) Canvas
Answer Key:
C) Hot potatoes
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Module 6 Previous Year Questions: