NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2024 February

Q1) Which of the following is not the objective of institutional management?

A) Achievement of institutional objectives
B) Improvement in planning, organising and implementation of institutional programmes and activities
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
D) Enhance employees’ job satisfaction

Answer Key:
C) Enhancing productivity of industry

Q2) Institutional Administration is the process of:

A) Utilizing appropriate resources for development of Human qualities
B) Managing activities of educational institutions
C) Planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in educational setting
D) None

Answer Key:
B) Managing activities of educational institutions

Q3) The curriculum drift means:

A) Identifying missing content in the curriculum
B) Identifying inappropriate content
C) Identifying obsolete content
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q4) Economic uncertainty, regulatory requirements, and new competitors are examples of what type of factors that affect institutional management?

A) Intrapersonal factors
B) Internal factors
C) Interpersonal factors
D) External factors

Answer Key:
D) External factors

Q5) Which of the following is NOT true in respect of planning?

A) Planning is an intellectual activity
B) Planning function is only performed at the lowest level of management
C) Planning is related to objectives
D) Planning is forward-looking

Answer Key:
B) Planning function is only performed at the lowest level of management

Q6) Which of the following is NOT true about strategic planning in an institution?

A) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change
B) It is a top down approach of planning
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution

Answer Key:
B) It is a top down approach of planning

Q7) The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive weapons are:

A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

Q8) Which of the following are short term milestones or benchmarks that an institution must attain in order to achieve its long term objectives?

A) Vision
B) Mission
C) Plans
D) Goals

Answer Key:
D) Goals

Q9) The fundamental purpose of an institution’s mission statement is to:

A) Create a good human relations climate in the institution
B) Define the operational structure of the institution
C) Generate good public relations for the institution
D) Define the institution’s purpose in society

Answer Key:
D) Define the institution’s purpose in society

Q10) Responsibility always flows from:

A) Superior to subordinate
B) Subordinate to superior
C) Peer to peer
D) None

Answer Key:
B) Subordinate to superior

Q11) In line and staff organisation, the staff performs the function of:

A) Management
B) Advising the management
C) Assigning responsibility
D) None

Answer Key:
B) Advising the management

Q12) The following steps are involved in the process of organising:

(A). Forming supportive objectives
(B). Delegating to the head of each group the authority necessary to perform the activities
(C). Establishing enterprise objectives
(D). Identifying and classifying activities

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (C), (A), (B), (D)
B) (C), (A), (D), (B)
C) (A), (C), (D), (B)
D) (A), (C), (B), (D)

Answer Key:
B) (C), (A), (D), (B)

Q13) Matrix organisation’ refers to:

A) Organisation where authority and responsibility coexist
B) Organisation in which two or more basic types of departments are combined
C) Mathematical arrangement of events in columns and rows
D) None

Answer Key:
C) Mathematical arrangement of events in columns and rows

Q14) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a team?

A) Collective output
B) Individual and collective responsibility
C) Fluid dimension to roles and tasks
D) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing

Answer Key:
D) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing

Q15) All of the following increase team effectiveness EXCEPT:

A) Understanding team timing
B) Ignoring ineffective team processes
C) Paying attention to team tasks
D) Developing, using and reinforcing effective group norms

Answer Key:
B) Ignoring ineffective team processes

Q16) Which of the following is NOT one of the task related functions within a team?

A) Resource acquisition and management
B) Work distribution
C) Participation
D) Commonly accepted mission

Answer Key:
C) Participation

Q17) The team gathers for the monthly progress and problems’ report about reaching individual and departmental objectives. Which of the following statements reflect effective team meeting?

A) Only a few team members seem to be concerned about the impact of their presentation; they attempt to build allies within the team
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems
C) Some team members seem to be playing the political game, while others do not
D) One clique exists within this team and their presentations sound about the same-politically safe

Answer Key:
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems

Q18) Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development?

A) Forming
B) Deciding
C) Performing
D) Storming

Answer Key:
B) Deciding

Q19) Rearrange the following steps of recruitment:

(A). Searching
(B). Evaluation and control
(C). Planning
(D). Screening
(E). Strategy development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
B) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
C) (D), (E), (C), (A), (B)
D) (B), (A), (D), (E), (C)

Answer Key:
B) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)

Q20) A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the institution is called:

A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement

Answer Key:
C) Orientation

Q21) ______ is any learning activity directed towards future needs rather than present needs.

A) Training
B) Development
C) Education
D) Instruction

Answer Key:
B) Development

Q22) Which of the following option is a component of remuneration?

A) Fringe Benefits
B) Commitment
C) External equity
D) Motivation

Answer Key:
A) Fringe Benefits

Q23) Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
(A). Fringe benefits	(I). Stock option
(B). Job context	(II). Challenging job responsibilities
(C). Prerequisites	(III). Group plans
(D). Incentives	(IV). Medical care

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
B) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
C) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
D) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)

Answer Key:
A) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)

Q24) When a higher level job is assigned to an individual without increase in salary, it is called:

A) Horizontal promotion
B) Vertical promotion
C) Dry promotion
D) Diagonal promotion

Answer Key:
C) Dry promotion

Q25) Payment to faculty on per class/period of teaching or output per period/hour basis is called:

A) Time rate method
B) Period rate method
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None

Answer Key:
B) Period rate method

Q26) As per Sec 3-C of CCS conduct Rules “sexual harassment” includes such unwelcome sexually determined behaviour whether directly or otherwise:

A) Physical contact as advances
B) Demand or request for sexual favours
C) Sexually coloured remarks
D) All the these

Answer Key:
D) All the these

Q27) Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Outstanding expenses – current asset
B) Good will – intangible asset
C) Sundry debtors – current asset
D) Loose tools – tangible fixed asset

Answer Key:
A) Outstanding expenses – current asset

Q28) Fixed assets should be verified at least once in:

A) six months
B) one year
C) two years
D) three years

Answer Key:
B) one year

Q29) Diwali advance given to an employee is:

A) Revenue Expenditure
B) Capital Expenditure
C) Not an Expenditure
D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Answer Key:
C) Not an Expenditure

Q30) All of the following are traits and characteristics of effective leaders EXCEPT:

A) Charisma
B) Strong motivation and high energy
C) Trustworthiness and character
D) Being so self-confident that they believe they can handle anything

Answer Key:
D) Being so self-confident that they believe they can handle anything

Q31) According to Path Goal Theory, which of the following is NOT a Leadership Behaviour?

A) directive behaviour
B) supportive behaviour
C) participative behaviour
D) none

Answer Key:
D) none

Q32) Ravi is a type of manager who is concerned primarily with accomplishing goals and objectives and concentrates on the task itself. His behavioural style is called:

A) authoritarian
B) democratic
C) task oriented
D) people oriented

Answer Key:
C) task oriented

Q33) Mr. X is the only person in the institution with expertise in the E-Commerce field. His source of power is called:

A) reward power
B) knowledge power
C) referent power
D) None

Answer Key:
B) knowledge power

Q34) Transformational leadership has the following characteristics:

A) Believe success arises from leaders and staff working together
B) Takes the view that rewards and punishment motivate staff
C) Seeks to involve staff in the decision making process
D) Employs a clear chain of command

Answer Key:
D) Employs a clear chain of command

Q35) Moving your head, face, and eyes away from another person while communicating is often interpreted as a lack of Self-:

A) Respect
B) Esteem
C) Confidence
D) Control

Answer Key:
C) Confidence

Q36) The following is NOT a barrier to effective communication:

A) One-way communication
B) Mixed signal from sender
C) Feedback
D) Different interpretation of words

Answer Key:
C) Feedback

Q37) One of the following is NOT the suggestion for improving individual’s listening skills. Which is that?

A) Empathizing with the speaker
B) Paraphrase the speaker
C) Maintain eye contact with the speaker
D) Sympathizing with the speaker

Answer Key:
A) Empathizing with the speaker

Q38) Horizontal communication takes place between:

A) Employees with same status
B) Subordinate to Superior
C) Superior to Subordinate
D) None

Answer Key:
A) Employees with same status

Q39) Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a Motivated Workforce?

A) High Productivity
B) Ingenuity in the use of Resources
C) High Employee Turnover
D) Work conscious

Answer Key:
C) High Employee Turnover

Q40) The theory of motivation where employees make comparison of the ratios of their job inputs to outcomes relative to those of others:

A) Expectancy Theory
B) Equity Theory
C) Two Factor Theory
D) Need Hierarchy Theory

Answer Key:
B) Equity Theory

Q41) The factors that are associated with conditions surrounding the job, according to Herzberg’s two factor theory, are:

A) Hygiene factors
B) Economic factors
C) Motivating factors
D) Environmental factors

Answer Key:
A) Hygiene factors

Q42) A programme of one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager for developing the leadership skills of the later is called:

A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Orientation
D) None

Answer Key:
A) Coaching

Q43) One of the following is NOT a tip that manager can employ for increasing the employee acceptance and commitment to Goals, which is that?

A) Convincing employees that goal attainment is within their capabilities
B) Providing managerial support
C) Explaining goal relevance to personal needs
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Answer Key:
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Q44) The middle management is responsible for _____.

A) Official Goals
B) Strategical Goals
C) Operative Goals
D) All these

Answer Key:
C) Operative Goals

Q45) The best strategy(ies) for planning out your time effectively is/are:

A) Delay any unnecessary work
B) Prioritize all your tasks
C) Ignore all the unexpected work
D) All these

Answer Key:
B) Prioritize all your tasks

Q46) All the symptoms of poor time management except:

A) Sub- par work quality
B) Not meeting deadlines
C) Too much on the plate
D) Getting organized

Answer Key:
D) Getting organized

Q47) Work attitudes can be reflected in an institution through:

A) Job Satisfaction
B) Organizational Commitment
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer Key:
C) Both (A) and (B)

Q48) The following is NOT the component of Attitude:

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognition
C) Behaviour
D) Affect

Answer Key:
A) Psycho-motor

Q49) Which of the following is not the stage in Kurt Lewin’s famous three-stage prescriptive model of change developed in the 1950s?

A) Moving to a new level
B) Refreezing attitudes at the new level
C) Unfreezing current attitudes
D) Melting resistance

Answer Key:
D) Melting resistance

Q50) The questionable assumptions underpinning the prescriptive approach to strategic change:

A) Change is unpredictable and discontinuous
B) Change is a continuous process
C) Change is predictable, sequential and controllable by management
D) Change is an organic and fundamentally about managing culture

Answer Key:
C) Change is predictable, sequential and controllable by management

Q51) For overcoming the resistance to change, the following strategy is Not appropriate:

A) Communication and discussion
B) Involving those who resist in the change process
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
D) Giving incentives

Answer Key:
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line

Q52) A process where employees write down their ideas on slips of paper with no identification, exchange the slips and attempt to build on each other’s ideas:

A) Mind mapping
B) Brain writing
C) Forced relationship
D) Pattern breakers

Answer Key:
B) Brain writing

Q53) All of these are the approaches to encourage creativity in an institution except:

A) tolerating failures
B) offering recognition for good effort and performance
C) restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence
D) encouraging experimentation among employees

Answer Key:
C) restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence

Q54) Innovation is:

A) commercialization of a new product or process
B) invention of a new product or process
C) development of a new product or process idea
D) implementation of a new production method

Answer Key:
A) commercialization of a new product or process

Q55) The weakest form of control is:

A) Pre-control
B) Simultaneous control
C) Post-control
D) Dual control

Answer Key:
C) Post-control

Q56) The premise control is based on:

A) Buildings
B) People
C) Resources
D) Assumptions

Answer Key:
D) Assumptions

Q57) The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
B) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance

Answer Key:
A) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Q58) Effective control depends on:

A) Organisation structure
B) Proper direction
C) Flow of communication
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q59) The simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance:

A) Rating Scales
B) Critical Incident
C) Cost accounting
D) BARS

Answer Key:
A) Rating Scales

Q60) The major weakness of the forced distribution method is:

A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
B) Work is reliable
C) The error of central tendency
D) None

Answer Key:
A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

Q61) A typical confidential report comprises of following attributes of an individual:

(A). Leadership
(B). Ability to reason
(C). Integrity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B) only.
B) (A), (C) only.
C) (A), (B), (C).
D) (B), (C) only.

Answer Key:
C) (A), (B), (C).

Q62) If no charge sheet is issued within 3 months of suspension of an employee, then:

A) Suspension is to be revoked
B) Reasons for suspension are to be intimated to the employee
C) His monthly payment should be doubled
D) He should be transferred mandatorily from that place.

Answer Key:
B) Reasons for suspension are to be intimated to the employee

Q63) The systematic collection and interpretation of evidence, leading as part of the process, to a judgement of value with a view to action is called:

A) Assessment
B) Evaluation
C) Corrective action
D) Feedback

Answer Key:
B) Evaluation

Q64) In institutional evaluation, “Adequacy” means to:

A) check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:
A) check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not

Q65) Identify the correct statement. Academic audit is:

A) A framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) An externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Answer Key:
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Q66) Institutional Planning is a good method of:

A) Solving problems
B) Eliminating trial and error method
C) Checking wastage and stagnation of resources
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q67) The most appropriate order in which the institutional managers typically perform the managerial functions:

A) organising, planning, controlling, leading
B) organising, leading, planning, controlling
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling
D) planning, organising, controlling, leading

Answer Key:
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling

Q68) The function of Budgeting in Institutional management is:

A) Financial Planning
B) Accounting
C) Control and expenditure
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q69) The assumptions about the environment in which an institutional plans are formulated and executed are:

A) A regular follow-up
B) Derivative plans
C) Planning Premises
D) Setting of objectives

Answer Key:
C) Planning Premises

Q70) The term best describes the process of obtaining, deploying, and utilizing a variety of essential resources to contribute to an institution’s success:

A) planning
B) organizing
C) staffing
D) management

Answer Key:
D) management

Q71) Which of the following characterize a manager as being effective?

A) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of outputs produced
B) They devote a large amount of time to planning
C) They achieve their goals
D) They interview, select, and train people who are most suitable to fill open jobs.

Answer Key:
C) They achieve their goals

Q72) The strategies which aim at improving internal weaknesses by taking advantage of external opportunities:

A) SO
B) WO
C) SW
D) ST

Answer Key:
B) WO

Q73) 4 Ps of internal scan in SWOT analysis does not include:

A) Properties
B) People
C) Processes
D) Profits

Answer Key:
D) Profits

Q74) ______ is an important functional area of an institution requiring change.

A) Core value
B) Thrust area
C) Change agent
D) Strategy

Answer Key:
B) Thrust area

Q75) Any person, group or organisation that can place a claim on an institution’s attention/resources/output is called:

A) Customer
B) Top Management
C) Stakeholder
D) Consumer

Answer Key:
C) Stakeholder

Q76) The following is NOT a principle of organisation:

A) Principle of exception
B) Principle of balance
C) Principle of complexity
D) Principle of co-ordination

Answer Key:
C) Principle of complexity

Q77) Each subordinate should have only one superior whose command he has to obey. This is known as:

A) Division of work
B) Exception principle
C) Unity of Command principle
D) Authority – responsibility principle

Answer Key:
C) Unity of Command principle

Q78) Organisation structure establishes relationships between:

A) organisation and environment
B) people, work and resources
C) organisation and society
D) suppliers and customers

Answer Key:
B) people, work and resources

Q79) Group norms are:

A) Modes of behaviours that are shared by some members of the group
B) Modes of behaviours that challenge group values and beliefs
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members
D) Modes of behaviours that are different of those of other group members

Answer Key:
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members

Q80) The following is NOT a characteristic of an effective team:

A) The open expression of feelings and disagreements
B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves
C) A belief in shared aims and objectives
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Answer Key:
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Q81) Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads?

A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) On payroll
D) Third pay

Answer Key:
B) Indirect

Q82) Which of the following topics are covered in employee orientation programme?

A) Training and education benefit
B) Relationship to other jobs
C) Disciplinary regulations
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q83) The following is not a method of on the job training:

A) Supervision
B) Job instruction
C) Role play
D) Job rotation

Answer Key:
C) Role play

Q84) Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?

A) Employee participation
B) Pay secrecy
C) Comparable worth
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q85) The following act, conduct and commissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct:

A) If the act or conduct is prejudicial or likely to be prejudicial to the interests of the master or to the reputation of the master

B) If the act or conduct is inconsistent or incompatible with the due or peaceful discharge of his duty to his master

C) If the act or conduct of a servant makes it unsafe for the employer to retain him in service

D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q86) A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in part has been made during a period of:

A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction
B) Financial year in which sanction accorded
C) 6 months from the date of issue of such sanction
D) 3 months from the date of issue of such sanction

Answer Key:
A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction

Q87) As per accrual concept, which of the followings is not true:

A) sales + gross profit = revenue
B) revenue – profit = expenditure
C) revenue – expenditure = profit
D) revenue = profit + expenditure

Answer Key:
A) sales + gross profit = revenue

Q88) A manager gets his authority by virtue of his position, while a _____ gets his authority from his followers.

A) Mentor
B) Counsellor
C) Leader
D) Coach

Answer Key:
C) Leader

Q89) The leadership styles given by Hersey and Blanchard include:

A) Telling, Selling, Participative and Delegating styles
B) Telling, Selling, Directing and Delegating styles
C) Telling, Selling, Directing and Controlling styles
D) Telling, Selling, Leading and Delegating styles

Answer Key:
A) Telling, Selling, Participative and Delegating styles

Q90) In which stage of the communication process, does the receiver interpret the message and translate it into meaningful information?

A) Encoding
B) Decoding
C) Feedback
D) Transmission

Answer Key:
B) Decoding

Q91) Which of the following facial clues often reveals that a person is lying?

A) Failure to look you in the eye
B) Facial shift
C) Crooked smile
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q92) Rearrange the following six steps of motivation logically:

A. Engages in goal – directed behaviour
B. Reassesses needs deficiencies
C. Performs
D. Identifies needs
E. Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
F. Receives either rewards or punishment

A) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F)
B) (B), (C), (D), (E), (A), (F).
C) (D), (F), (C), (A), (E), (B).
D) (D), (E), (A), (C), (F), (B)

Answer Key:
D) (D), (E), (A), (C), (F), (B)

Q93) The broad aim of Counselling is:

A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour

Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity

Q94) The creative people tend to have all of the following characteristics except:

A) A positive self-image without being blindly self-confident
B) Can work along in isolation necessary for developing ideas
C) Frequently considered to be nonconformists and do not need strong approval from the group
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Answer Key:
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Q95) The last step in a control process is:

A) Allocate resources
B) Taking corrective action
C) Select a strategy
D) Set standards

Answer Key:
B) Taking corrective action

Q96) The full form of “BARS” is:

A) Baseline Accounting and Reporting System
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
C) Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System
D) Behaviourally Anchored Reporting Scales

Answer Key:
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

Q97) The time limit for completing an inquiry and submitting report by the Inquiring Authority is:

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 18 months

Answer Key:
B) 6 months

Q98) _______ involves collecting and analysing information about a programme’s activities, characteristics and outcomes.

A) Academic audit
B) Education evaluation
C) Programme evaluation
D) Organisational assessment

Answer Key:
C) Programme evaluation

Q99) ________ is/are WRONG statement(s) about academic audit.

A) Framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) Externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q100) Academic Audit report contains all of the following except:

A) Current status
B) Strengths and weaknesses
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals
D) Action plan for future improvements

Answer Key:
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals

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