Module 8 Previous Year Questions

NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2024 September

Module 8 Previous Year Questions:

2024FebruarySeptember
2023FebruarySeptember
2022July
2021MarchOctober

Q1) The curriculum drift means:

A) Identifying missing content in the curriculum

B) Identifying inappropriate content

C) Identifying obsolete content

D) Above all

Answer Key:

D) Above all


Q2) Identify the characteristic of an effective manager.

A) He/she interviews, selects, and trains people who are most suitable to fill open jobs

B) He/she achieves his/her goals

C) He/she devotes a large amount of time to planning

D) He/she uses a minimum amount of resources for the amount of outputs produced

Answer Key:

B) He/she achieves his/her goals


Q3) Out of the following levels of management, Technical Skills (including abilities and knowledge needed to perform specific tasks) are largely required by:

A) Lower level of management

B) Junior Middle level of management

C) Senior Middle level of management

D) Top Level of management

Answer Key:

A) Lower level of management


Q4) Which one of the following type of managerial skill is concerned with the ability of a manager to interface and work effectively with individuals and groups?

A) Administrative

B) Interpersonal

C) Organizational

D) Technical

Answer Key:

B) Interpersonal


Q5) Which of the following is/are function(s) of Budgeting in Institutional Management?

(A). Accounting

(B). Control and expenditure

(C). Financial Planning

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (B) and (C) only.

B) (A), (B) and (C).

C) (A) and (B) only.

D) (A) only.

Answer Key:

B) (A), (B) and (C).


Q6) Who gave FIRST the concept of ‘Management by Objectives’?

A) Edwards Deming

B) D.W. Cheetham

C) Hershey Blanchard

D) Peter F. Drucker

Answer Key:

D) Peter F. Drucker


Q7) The level of management responsible for establishing a vision for the organization, developing broad plans and strategies, and directing subordinate managers:

A) bottom

B) middle

C) top

D) All

Answer Key:

C) top


Q8) Institutional planning aims to:

A) save time, money and materials

B) involve every teacher in the plan preparation

C) promote better co-operation among teachers

D) none

Answer Key:

B) involve every teacher in the plan preparation


Q9) Which of the following are the elements of the six-point Strategic Planning?

(A). Create your mission

(B). Define your vision

(C). Develop your strategy

(D). Get down to tactics

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B) and (D) only.

B) (A), (C) and (D) only.

C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).

D) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Answer Key:

C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).


Q10) Which one of the following is the first stage of Institutional Planning?

A) Setting of objectives

B) Selecting material

C) Designing evaluation procedures

D) Assessing and choosing the best alternative

Answer Key:

A) Setting of objectives


Q11) There are _____ basic steps involved in planning:

A) 4

B) 5

C) 6

D) 7

Answer Key:

B) 5


Q12) A programme of development and improvement prepared by an educational institution is called as a(n):

A) long-term plan

B) institutional plan

C) Planning Premises

D) short term plan

Answer Key:

B) institutional plan


Q13) The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive weapons are:

A) Strengths

B) Opportunities

C) Core competencies

D) Strategies

Answer Key:

C) Core competencies


Q14) Which of the following is NOT true about strategic planning in an institution?

A) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change

B) It is a top down approach of planning

C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues

D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution

Answer Key:

B) It is a top down approach of planning


Q15) The starting point of strategic intent:

A) Objectives

B) Goals

C) Vision

D) Mission

Answer Key:

C) Vision


Q16) The short term milestones or benchmarks that an institution must attain in order to achieve its long term objectives:

A) Vision

B) Mission

C) Goals

D) Plans

Answer Key:

C) Goals


Q17) All of the following statements would be considered to be true regarding institute’s vision statements except ________ :

A) vision statements are often combined with the mission statement

B) vision statements are often designed to be memorable, one-line statements

C) vision statements are never presented with an institute’s mission statement

D) vision statements reflect an institute’s strategic intent

Answer Key:

C) vision statements are never presented with an institute’s mission statement


Q18) Hierarchy of Strategic Intent:

i. Vision > Mission > Goals > Objectives > Plans

ii. Mission > Vision > Goals > Objectives > Plans

iii. Plans > Vision > Mission > Goals > Objectives

iv. Goals > Vision > Mission > Objectives > Plans

A) i

B) iii

C) iv

D) ii

Answer Key:

A) i


Q19) _______ clearly defines what tasks & activities shall be carried out at particular job:

A) Role clarity

B) Coordination

C) Job design

D) Specialization

Answer Key:

A) Role clarity


Q20) In which of the following type of organizational structure is the authority well defined and flows vertically from the top to the hierarchy level to the managerial level and subordinates at the bottom and continues further to the workers till the end?

A) Functional Organisation

B) Line Organisation

C) Matrix Organisation

D) Project Organisatio

Answer Key:

B) Line Organisation


Q21) If the span of control is narrow, a number of managers would be required in each unit of the organization and there would be many managerial levels or layers, such an organizational structure pertains to:

A) Flat structure

B) Matrix structure

C) Project structure

D) Tall structure

Answer Key:

D) Tall structure


Q22) In line and staff organisation, the staff performs the function of:

A) Management

B) Advising the management

C) Assigning responsibility

D) None

Answer Key:

B) Advising the management


Q23) Which is the term used for reaching consensus as a group during team formulation?

A) Storming

B) Norming

C) Forming

D) Performing

Answer Key:

B) Norming


Q24) The most significant skill required for teamwork is:

A) A need to be part of a team

B) A willingness to help and guide other employees

C) Respect for others

D) An employee that enjoys working alone

Answer Key:

C) Respect for others


Q25) The following is not a characteristic of a team:

A) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing

B) Collective output

C) Individual and collective responsibility

D) Fluid dimension to roles and tasks

Answer Key:

A) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing


Q26) Which of the following is the main advantage of Functional Organisation?

A) Allow employees to specialize in their respective areas of expertise leading to a higher level of skill development and efficiency within each functional area

B) Offer flexibility, enable shared resources and foster collaboration within the company

C) Organise employees around a common product or geographical location

D) Organise with fewer levels of management

Answer Key:

A) Allow employees to specialize in their respective areas of expertise leading to a higher level of skill development and efficiency within each functional area


Q27) The age-old system of administrative hierarchy, based on formal authorities, used to delegate orderly, fair and logical instructions to subordinates is:

A) Bureaucracies

B) Mechanistic structure

C) Organisational Structure

D) Organic structure

Answer Key:

A) Bureaucracies


Q28) Responsibility always flows from:

A) Superior to subordinate

B) Subordinate to superior

C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

D) None

Answer Key:

B) Subordinate to superior


Q29) Identify the alternate name(s) for Incentives given to an employee:

(A). Gratuity

(B). Paid holidays

(C). Payments by result

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B) and (C).

B) (A) only.

C) (B) and (C) only.

D) (C) only.

Answer Key:

D) (C) only.


Q30) With which of the following, Delegation of Authority is linked to?

A) Scientific Management

B) Management Control

C) Management Coordination

D) Managerial Planning

Answer Key:

B) Management Control


Q31) From the point of view of an effective team, study the following case:

Rakesh, a senior member of the team, and Umesh, a junior member in the team, are on the opposite sides of an important issue. Both of their positions have merit. You have noticed that when Rakesh and Umesh were presenting their arguments, other team members:

A) Seem to be harsher in the criticisms of Umesh’s arguments

B) Favour Rakesh slightly over Umesh

C) Don’t pay much attention to either viewpoint

D) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences

Answer Key:

D) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences


Q32) Under CCS conduct rules “sexual harassment” includes such unwelcome sexually determined behaviour whether directly or otherwise as:

A) Physical contact as advances

B) Demand or request for sexual favours

C) Showing any pornography; or any other unwelcome physical, verbal or nonverbal conduct of a sexual nature

D) All these

Answer Key:

D) All these


Q33) Which strategic choices an institute needs to make before designing its orientation programme?

A) Formal or informal

B) Individual or collective

C) Serial or disjunctive

D) All

Answer Key:

D) All


Q34) A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the institution is called:

A) Job evaluation

B) Investiture orientation

C) Orientation

D) Placement

Answer Key:

C) Orientation


Q35) The following is not true about training:

A) Training is independent activity and not related to Organizational Strategy.

B) Training is coherent whole with each program building on the learning from previous program

C) Training is developed and implemented in partnership with line managers.

D) Approach Training as a process and not just a program.

Answer Key:

A) Training is independent activity and not related to Organizational Strategy.


Q36) Under this method employees learn their job on the equipment they will be using but training is done away from actual work place:

A) Apprenticeship programme

B) Vestibule training

C) Job rotation

D) Job analysis

Answer Key:

B) Vestibule training


Q37) Which of the following option is a component of remuneration?

A) Fringe Benefits

B) Commitment

C) External equity

D) Motivation

Answer Key:

A) Fringe Benefits


Q38) The allocation of people to jobs includes initial assignment of new employees, and promotion, transfer, or demotion of present employees. It is referred to as:

A) Selection

B) Recruitment

C) Placement

D) Orientation

Answer Key:

C) Placement


Q39) _____________ refers to reassignment of employee to position with higher pay and greater responsibilities:

A) Recruitment

B) Demotion

C) Promotion

D) Transfer

Answer Key:

C) Promotion


Q40) Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –

I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option

II. Job Context ——- B. Challenging job responsibilities

III. Perquisites ——- C. Group Plans

IV. Incentives ——- D. Medical Care

A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Answer Key:

A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C


Q41) Identify the topics that are covered in the Employee Orientation Programme:

(A). Disciplinary Regulations

(B). Policies & Procedures

(C). Relationship to other jobs

(D). Training and Education Benefit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B) and (D) only.

B) (A), (C) and (D) only.

C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).

D) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Answer Key:

C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).


Q42) Out of the following, identify the WRONG statement in respect of CCS (Conduct) Rules 1964.

A) A Government servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an election in legislature election only

B) A Government servant is prohibited from brining any political to bear upon any superior authority to further their interests in respect of matters pertaining to their service under the Government

C) A Government servant endeavours to prevent any member of his family from taking part in elections.

D) A Government servant is qualified to vote at such election may exercise his right to vote.

Answer Key:

A) A Government servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an election in legislature election only


Q43) If nothing is written about the accounting assumption to be followed, it is presumed that:

A) They have not been followed

B) They are followed to some extent

C) They are fully followed

D) None

Answer Key:

A) They have not been followed


Q44) Fixed assets should be verified at least once in:

A) Six months

B) one year

C) two years

D) three years

Answer Key:

A) Six months


Q45) The process of recording financial transactions on a daily basis into a book or accounting software is called as:

A) Summarising

B) Classifying

C) Bookkeeping

D) Analyzing

Answer Key:

C) Bookkeeping


Q46) If a bid is accepted during the process of auctioning the disposal, earnest money should immediately be taken on the spot from the successful bidder. The amount of the earnest money should be not less than:

A) 30%

B) 25%

C) 20%

D) 10%

Answer Key:

B) 25%


Q47) Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence because of the leader’s:

(A). Ability to punish or reward

(B). Personal charisma

(C). Position within an organization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B) and (C).

B) (B) and (C) only.

C) (B) only.

D) (A) only.

Answer Key:

C) (B) only.


Q48) Mr. X is the only person in the institution with expertise in the E-Commerce field. This source of power is called:

A) reward power

B) knowledge power

C) reference power

D) none

Answer Key:

B) knowledge power


Q49) Transformational leadership has the following characteristics:

A) Believe success arises from leaders and staff working together

B) Takes the view that rewards and punishment motivate staff

C) Seeks to involve staff in the decision making process

D) Employs a clear chain of command

Answer Key:

D) Employs a clear chain of command


Q50) According to the situational leadership theory, if employees are unwilling and unable, the appropriate leadership style in this situation would be ________ :

A) participative

B) democratic

C) person-oriented

D) directive

Answer Key:

D) directive


Q51) Which of the following is concerned with a master plan that makes resources available in the organization and plans monetary?

A) Budgeting

B) Controlling

C) Directing

D) Planning

Answer Key:

A) Budgeting


Q52) In Adair’s approach, needs such as training the group, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-leaders may be called:

A) Work functions

B) Team functions

C) Task functions

D) Individual functions

Answer Key:

B) Team functions


Q53) Criticism of Govt means and includes (as per CCS conduct Rules):Criticism of Govt means and includes (as per CCS conduct Rules):

A) Which has the effect of an adverse criticism of any current or recent policy or action of the Central Government or a State Government

B) Which is capable of embarrassing the relations between the Central Govt. and the Government of any State

C) Which is capable of embarrassing the relations between the central government and the Government of any foreign state

D) All these

Answer Key:

D) All these


Q54) Most distributed leadership models see leadership located ______.

A) throughout the organization

B) in self-directed teams only

C) in key hierarchical positions

D) at the top of the organization

Answer Key:

A) throughout the organization


Q55) The form of communication that typically involves interactions between individuals possessing equal power is best referred to as _______ communication :

A) Upward

B) Downward

C) Horizontal

D) Vertical

Answer Key:

C) Horizontal


Q56) The following is considered a method to help overcome personal barriers to effective communication:

A) Impulsive behaviour

B) Poor administrative practices

C) Engaging in excessive impression management

D) Improvement of listening skills

Answer Key:

D) Improvement of listening skills


Q57) Which of the following is false regarding why a SWOT Analysis is used?

A) To build on the strengths of a business

B) To minimize the weaknesses of a business

C) To reduce opportunities available to a business

D) To counteract threats to a business

Answer Key:

C) To reduce opportunities available to a business


Q58) The formal greeting with which a business letter begins is called:

A) Subject

B) Salutation

C) Reference

D) Body of the letter

Answer Key:

B) Salutation


Q59) Horizontal communication takes place between:

(A). Lower-level employee and upper management when former disseminates information to the later

(B). Managers and the employees that they supervise

(C). Two other employees with the same status who work in different departments, such as sales and marketing, may also engage in communication when they collaborate on specific projects

(D). Two employees with the same job title who work together on tasks engage in communication as they work

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B) and (D) only.

B) (C) and (D) only.

C) (B), (C) and (D) only.

D) (D) only.

Answer Key:

B) (C) and (D) only.


Q60) When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said most people believe in:

(A). Indeterminate messages

(B). Non-verbal messages

(C). Verbal messages

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B) and (C).

B) (B) and (C) only.

C) (B) only.

D) (C) only.

Answer Key:

C) (B) only.


Q61) Identify the correct sequence of the components of Communication Process:

(A). Transmission

(B). Feedback

(C). Encoding

(D). Decoding

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B), (C), (D).

B) (C), (A), (D), (B).

C) (B), (A), (D), (C).

D) (C), (D), (A), (B).

Answer Key:

B) (C), (A), (D), (B).


Q62) Which of the following theories of motivation is concerned with comparing the ratios of inputs to outcomes an individual receives against the ratios of other people?

A) Expectancy Theory

B) Equity Theory

C) Two Factor Theory

D) Need Hierarchy Theory

Answer Key:

B) Equity Theory


Q63) Mentoring behaviors include:

A) aligning expectations

B) building rapport

C) maintaining open communication

D) All these

Answer Key:

D) All these


Q64) Out of the following, which one is a Technique of Motivating Oneself?

A) Providing opportunities to grow

B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying

C) Matching people to tasks

D) Individualizing reinforcers

Answer Key:

B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying


Q65) An individual’s motivation is dependent on:

A) whether path-goal relationships are clarified

B) Fulfillment of expectations that increase effort to achieve improved level of performance

C) Their effective performance

D) The necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided

Answer Key:

B) Fulfillment of expectations that increase effort to achieve improved level of performance


Q66) Which of the following deals with one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager for developing the leadership skills of the later?

A) Coaching

B) Mentoring

C) Orientation

D) None

Answer Key:

A) Coaching


Q67) According to Frederick Herzberg, _____ are elements associated with conditions surrounding the job:

A) hygiene factors

B) motivating factors

C) economic factors

D) environmental factors

Answer Key:

A) hygiene factors


Q68) _____ asserts that individuals are likely to compare the ratios of inputs to outcomes they receive against the ratios of other people, such as colleagues or acquaintances :

A) Acquired needs theory

B) Equity theory

C) Expectancy theory

D) Two-factor theory

Answer Key:

B) Equity theory


Q69) The correct sequence in the process of motivation:

A. Action

B. Need

C. Relief

D. Tension

A) (A), (B), (C), (D)

B) (B), (D), (A), (C)

C) (D), (C), (B), (A)

D) (B), (A), (D), (C)

Answer Key:

B) (B), (D), (A), (C)


Q70) Out of the following, which one indicates an important functional area, of an institution, requiring change?

A) Change agent

B) Core value

C) Strategy

D) Thrust area

Answer Key:

D) Thrust area


Q71) Out of the following, which one will NOT affect the choice of Planned Change Programme in an institution?

A) Nature of the institute

B) Leadership Style

C) Government Policy

D) Culture of the institute

Answer Key:

C) Government Policy


Q72) The following is NOT a way of overcoming resistance to change:

A) Communication and discussion

B) Involving those who resist in the change process

C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line

D) Giving incentives

Answer Key:

C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line


Q73) Team creativity can be promoted by which of the following ways:

A) Establishing a competitive environment to promote creative ideas

B) Establishing challenges for the team

C) Evaluating ideas during the idea generation stage

D) Stressing deadlines to encourage intensity and focus

Answer Key:

B) Establishing challenges for the team


Q74) When developing creative solutions to modern problems, an individual must :

A) Go beyond merely using whatever has worked in the past

B) Limit the creative process to only profitable ventures

C) Remember what has not worked in the past

D) Pay attention to limiting factors

Answer Key:

A) Go beyond merely using whatever has worked in the past


Q75) The following is NOT a recommended approach to encourage creativity:

A) tolerating failures

B) offering recognition for good effort and performance

C) restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence

D) encouraging experimentation among employees

Answer Key:

C) restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence


Q76) The purpose of time blocking :

A) To eliminate all distractions during work hours

B) To allocate specific time slots for different tasks

C) To work on tasks without taking breaks

D) To limit the number of tasks to work on each day

Answer Key:

B) To allocate specific time slots for different tasks


Q77) Out of the following, which one is NOT a technique of developing and maintaining positive attitudes?

A) Engage in positive Self-talk

B) Look for the bright side

C) Set challenging goals for others

D) Visualize the Positive

Answer Key:

C) Set challenging goals for others


Q78) For which of the following goals, is the middle management responsible?

A) Official Goals

B) Operational Goals

C) Operative Goals

D) All

Answer Key:

C) Operative Goals


Q79) The following is NOT a characteristic of a SMART goal :

A) Relevant

B) Time-bound

C) Achievable

D) Targeted

Answer Key:

D) Targeted


Q80) The following is NOT a tip that manager can employ for increasing the employee acceptance and commitment to Goals:

A) Convincing employees that goal attainment is within their capabilities

B) Providing managerial support

C) Explaining goal relevance to personal needs

D) Setting ambiguous standards

Answer Key:

D) Setting ambiguous standards


Q81) The following is/are the best strategy(ies) for planning out your time effectively:

A) Delay any unnecessary work

B) Prioritize all your tasks

C) Ignore all the unexpected work

D) All

Answer Key:

B) Prioritize all your tasks


Q82) The premise control is based on:

A) Buildings

B) People

C) Resources

D) Assumptions

Answer Key:

D) Assumptions


Q83) The main purpose of monitoring is :

A) Tracking progress

B) Planning for targets

C) Training for performance improvement

D) Budgeting

Answer Key:

A) Tracking progress


Q84) The first step in a control process is:

A) Allocate resources

B) Choose key personnel for the task

C) Select a strategy

D) Set standards

Answer Key:

D) Set standards


Q85) Operational Control is often referred to as:

A) Planning control

B) Task control

C) Corrective control

D) Risk control

Answer Key:

B) Task control


Q86) The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

B) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity

C) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity

D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance

Answer Key:

A) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity


Q87) Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method?

A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

B) Work is reliable

C) The error of central tendency

D) None out of these

Answer Key:

A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution


Q88) Which one of the following involves collecting and analysing information about a programme’s activities, characteristics and outcomes?

A) Programme evaluation

B) Organisational assessment

C) Education evaluation

D) Academic audit

Answer Key:

A) Programme evaluation


Q89) Warning is :

A) Major penalty

B) Minor penalty

C) Serious caution

D) None

Answer Key:

C) Serious caution


Q90) The objective of __________________ is evaluation of individuals in systematic and scientific manner :

A) 360 degree feedback method

B) Assessment Centres

C) Human Assets Accounting

D) Critical Incident method

Answer Key:

B) Assessment Centres


Q91) ______________ occurs when the rater neither gives very high or very low ratings :

A) Leniency error

B) Central Tendency

C) Halo effect

D) Recency error

Answer Key:

B) Central Tendency


Q92) The simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance:

A) Rating Scales

B) Critical Incident

C) Cost accounting

D) BARS

Answer Key:

A) Rating Scales


Q93) Identify the scale that assesses the performance of new employees or trainees based on well-defined behavioural patterns.

A) Behaviorally Accounting and Reporting Scales

B) Behaviourally Anchored Reporting Scales

C) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

D) Baseline Accounting and Reporting Scales

Answer Key:

C) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales


Q94) Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance?

A) Graphic rating scale

B) Critical incident

C) MBO

D) Lickert’s scale

Answer Key:

A) Graphic rating scale


Q95) The systematic collection and interpretation of evidence, leading as part of the process, to a judgement of value with a view to action is called:

A) Assessment

B) Evaluation

C) Corrective action

D) Feedback

Answer Key:

B) Evaluation


Q96) In institutional evaluation, “Adequacy” means to:

A) check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not

B) check whether the institute has attained the expected goals

C) determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests

D) determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:

A) check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not


Q97) Out of the following, which one is NOT a component of Institutional Evaluation?

A) Interpretation of evidence

B) Judgement of value

C) Process identification

D) Systematic collection of evidence

Answer Key:

C) Process identification


Q98) Which of the following is NOT true about the benefits of academic audit?

A) Leads to deeper acknowledgement to all internal processes and systems

B) Enhances the involvement of individuals in identifying key performance indicators

C) Provides the present status but does not identify the thrust areas for future growth & development

D) Provides yardsticks for performance judgement

Answer Key:

C) Provides the present status but does not identify the thrust areas for future growth & development


Q99) The following is NOT the basic principle underlying an academic audit:

A) Base decisions on evidence

B) Define quality in terms of inputs

C) Learn from best practices

D) Make continuous improvement a priority

Answer Key:

B) Define quality in terms of inputs


Q100) Programme evaluation practices should aim at :

A) Segregation of students for ability- based groups

B) Identifying students’ needs and requirements

C) Identification of high achievers for rewarding

D) Labelling of students

Answer Key:

B) Identifying students’ needs and requirements

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Module 8 Previous Year Questions:

2024FebruarySeptember
2023FebruarySeptember
2022July
2021MarchOctober
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