Q1. The steps involved in the process of creative problem solving include the following
I. Identify apparent problem
II. Define the real problem
III. Create alternate solutions
IV. Seek and analyze the causes
V. Select the best option
VI. Implement
VII. Plan a course of action
The correct sequence of these steps is
A) I – II – IV – III – V – VI – VII
B) I – IV – II – III – V – VII – VI
C) II – I – III – IV – V – VI – VII
D) II – I – IV – III – V – VI – VII
Answer Key:
B) I – IV – II – III – V – VII – VI
Q2. Which one of the following is a technique of generating ideas?
A) Evaluation matrix
B) Highlighting
C) Must versus needs
D) SCAMPER
Answer Key:
D) SCAMPER
Q3. Brain storming involves:
A) Generation of ideas
B) Generation of ideas without evaluation
C) Selection of ideas
D) Selection of ideas without evaluation
Answer Key:
B) Generation of ideas without evaluation
Q4. Which one of the following is a Focusing technique?
A) ALUo
B) Attribute listing
C) Forced fitting
D) Imagery trek
Answer Key:
A) ALUo
Q5. In SCAMPER technique, M refers to:
A) Minimize
B) Magnify
C) Modify
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q6. Innovation can be in terms of:
A) Process
B) Product
C) Service
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q7. Sixth generation innovation model is:
A) Market pull model
B) Network innovation model
C) Open innovation model
D) Technology push model
Answer Key:
C) Open innovation model
Q8. The stages in the process of innovation involve the following:
I. Advocacy and screening
II. Idea generation and mobilization
III. Experimentation
IV. Commercialization
V. Diffusion and implementation
The correct sequence of these stages is:
A) I – II – III – IV – V
B) II – I – III – IV – V
C) III – II – I – V – IV
D) I – III – II – V – IV
Answer Key:
B) II – I – III – IV – V
Q9. Prototype is developed at the stage of:
A) Advocacy and screening
B) Commercialization
C) Experimentation
D) Diffusion and implementation
Answer Key:
C) Experimentation
Q10. Design thinking involves the stages of:
I. Define
II. Discover
III. Evaluate
IV. Create
The correct sequence of these stages is:
A) II – I – IV – III
B) I – II – IV – III
C) I – II – III – IV
D) II – I – III – IV
Answer Key:
A) II – I – IV – III
Q11. For gaining insight into customer’s needs and experience, the techniques used include:
A) Empathy maps
B) Journey maps
C) Drafting personas
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q12. Procedure for conflicts resolution, decisions making etc., are finalized at:
A) Forming stage
B) Norming stage
C) Performing stage
D) Storming stage
Answer Key:
B) Norming stage
Q13. Members of team vie for positions at:
A) Forming stage
B) Norming stage
C) Performing stage
D) Storming stage
Answer Key:
D) Storming stage
Q14. While selecting members of a team, it should be seen that members are:
A) Creative
B) Knowledgeable
C) Optimistic
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q15. Tasks should be assigned to members according to their:
A) Age
B) Capability
C) Communication skills
D) Position
Answer Key:
B) Capability
Q16. Leader can motivate and inspire team members only when he / she:
A) Recognize individuality
B) Praise the members
C) Walk the talk
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q17. Which one of the following is ‘NOT’ an example of research?
A) a study on the effect of the level of aspiration on the achievement of technician students
B) preparation of a project report on industrial training
C) a survey of the job requirements of instruments engineering technicians in a country
D) development of learning modules on construction management and testing their effectiveness in regard to achievement and attitudes of civil engineering students
Answer Key:
B) preparation of a project report on industrial training
Q18. A study on the Impact of TEQIP on Technical education System is an example of:
A) Action research
B) Applied research
C) Basic research
D) Evaluation research
Answer Key:
D) Evaluation research
Q19. Which one of the following research studies can be classified as action research?
A) determining employers’ perception of preferred work experience for new employees
B) effect of positive and negative reinforcement on the learning of pigeons
C) effect of introducing the use of objective tests on the motivation of students in a classroom by a class teacher
D) relationship between high school grades and achievement by technician students in technician courses
Answer Key:
C) effect of introducing the use of objective tests on the motivation of students in a classroom by a class teacher
Q20. Which one of the following studies is an example of ex-post-facto research?
A) effect of socio-economic-status on the performance of students in vocational programmes
B) effect of direct instructional time on performance
C) effect of the frequency of testing on the performance of students
D) effect of learning through programmed instruction on performance
Answer Key:
A) effect of socio-economic-status on the performance of students in vocational programmes
Q21. The step ‘Describe Methodology of Research’ includes:
A) selecting research design, administering instruments, and the procedure for conducting research
B) generating hypotheses, selecting research design, selecting sample, and the procedure for conducting research
C) selecting research design, selecting sample, selecting instruments, selecting methods of analysis to be used and the procedure for conducting research
D) defining variables in the problems, selecting sample, selecting instruments, and the procedure of conducting research
Answer Key:
C) selecting research design, selecting sample, selecting instruments, selecting methods of analysis to be used and the procedure for conducting research
Q22. Basic research is conducted to :
A) generate new knowledge
B) facilitate decisions making
C) test a theory in the field
D) development of instructional material
Answer Key:
A) generate new knowledge
Q23. One of the objectives of a study on Effect of Blended Learning on Achievement in Power Systems can be:
A) To study the differences.in the achievement in Power Systems of students taught through lecture method and blended learning
B) There is significant difference in the achievement in Power Systems of students taught through lecture method and blended learning
C) There is no significant difference in the achievement in Power Systems of students taught through lecture method and blended learning
D) There is significant difference in the achievement in Power Systems of boys and girls taught through lecture method and blended learning
Answer Key:
A) To study the differences.in the achievement in Power Systems of students taught through lecture method and blended learning
Q24. If the review of related literature is inconclusive, the hypothesis to be preferred is:
A) Null hypothesis
B) Directional hypothesis
C) Non-directional hypothesis
D) Both (A) & (B)
Answer Key:
C) Non-directional hypothesis
Q25. Prediction studies aim at:
A) Predicting predictor variable on the basis of criterion variable
B) Predicting criterion variable on the basis of predictor variable
C) Both (A) & (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer Key:
B) Predicting criterion variable on the basis of predictor variable
Q26. Which one of the following is the first step in conducting a relationship study?
A) Selecting the subjects for the study
B) Selecting developing measuring instruments
C) Identifying the variables whose relationship is to be studied
D) Collecting and analysing data pertaining to the relations to be studied
Answer Key:
C) Identifying the variables whose relationship is to be studied
Q27. If two variables are highly correlated, it means:
A) that they always go together
B) high value on one variable leads to high value on other variable
C) that there are no other variables responsible for the relationship
D) that change in one variable is accompanied by predictable change in the other variable
Answer Key:
D) that change in one variable is accompanied by predictable change in the other variable
Q28. Determining the relationship between two or more variables occurs in:
A) Survey
B) Action
C) Correlation research
D) Naturalistic Observation
Answer Key:
C) Correlation research
Q29. Census carried out every ten years is an example of :
A) case study research
B) action research
C) sample survey
D) population survey
Answer Key:
D) population survey
Q30. Determining the quality of question papers w.r.t to their validity is an example of
A) case study research
B) content analysis research
C) correlation research
D) survey research
Answer Key:
B) content analysis research
Q31. The first step in planning a case study is:
A) selecting the unit of study
B) identifying the sources from where data are to be obtained
C) formulating objectives of the study
D) constructing observational schedules
Answer Key:
C) formulating objectives of the study
Q32. Case Study method of research is useful in:
A) exercising control on variables that interfere with those to be studied
B) generating hypotheses, explaining problems and relationships in a situation
C) deriving generalizations
D) making a comparative study of the conditions existing in different situations
Answer Key:
B) generating hypotheses, explaining problems and relationships in a situation
Q33. Which one of the following studies is ‘NOT’ an example of descriptive research?
A) a study on the learning styles of technician students for designing appropriate instructional strategies
B) a study describing the utilization of equipment and space in a polytechnic
C) a study of the practices followed for appraising and recruiting staff in technician institutions
D) a study describing the self-concept of students and the prediction of their performance
Answer Key:
D) a study describing the self-concept of students and the prediction of their performance
Q34. Which of the following is NOT true as a requirement in selecting the research problem?
Research problem should:
A) Be written in question form or statement form
B) Avoid dichotomous questions.
C) Be stated as value judgements.
D) Imply possibilities for empirical testing.
Answer Key:
C) Be stated as value judgements.
Q35. Which of the following criteria does NOT complete the statement?
The hypothesis should:
A) be clearly written as a statement.
B) be written prior to the collection of data.
C) include all variables in the problem.
D) indicate the relationship between variables.
Answer Key:
C) include all variables in the problem.
Q36. Which one of the following variables is NOT a discrete variable?
A) Age
B) Gender
C) Marital Status
D) Place of Residence
Answer Key:
A) Age
Q37. Which of the following problem situations poses a specific rather than a general research problem?
A) How will education affect teachers?
B) How relevant are core subjects in various courses?
C) How important is the role of principals in technician education?
D) How do two instructional methods differ in arc welding classes?
Answer Key:
D) How do two instructional methods differ in arc welding classes?
Q38. Which of the following is the source of problem situations in educational research?
A) A critical survey of literature
B) Interaction with others during seminars/conferences
C) Personal practical experience
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q39. By using a coding system on note cards, a researcher can:
A) collate references on similar topics
B) order the note cards into a sequence
C) cross-reference the note cards with original sources
D) indicate the type of information contained on each card
Answer Key:
D) indicate the type of information contained on each card
Q40. The reading technique that would be employed to locate terms and references in an index or thesaurus is:
A) skimming
B) scanning
C) pre-reading
D) key-reading
Answer Key:
B) scanning
Q41. Reviews in journals may provide the researcher with an appraisal of:
A) new publications
B) current unpublished research
C) other journal’s contents
D) the journal’s content
Answer Key:
A) new publications
Q42. Which of the following statements best describes an Annotated Bibliography?
A) a list of references extracted from a bibliography
B) a reference to publications from a clearinghouse
C) a reference to bibliographies held at an institution
D) a list of references with notes about each reference
Answer Key:
D) a list of references with notes about each reference
Q43. Which of the following information sources would provide you with definitions of education terms?
A) an education index
B) an education dictionary
C) an education thesaurus
D) an education encyclopaedia
Answer Key:
B) an education dictionary
Q44. Which of the following best describes a secondary source of literature?
A) Thesis
B) Dissertation
C) Journal article
D) Book
Answer Key:
D) Book
Q45. A primary source of information is one that reports:
A) a quasi-experimental research design
B) a first-hand description of research
C) a direct comparison of research
D) a critical evaluation of research
Answer Key:
B) a first-hand description of research
Q46. The general purpose of the review of literature is:
A) to clarify or discuss contradictory findings
B) to determine areas of bias in existing research
C) to search for research questions and hypotheses
D) to provide background to the research being conducted
Answer Key:
D) to provide background to the research being conducted
Q47. Which of the following values for a correlation coefficient, indicate greater relationship between two variables?
A) + 0.40
B) + 0.60
C) – 0.80
D) – 0.70
Answer Key:
C) – 0.80
Q48. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of ex-post facto research?
A) To establish cause-and-effect relationship between independent and dependent variables
B) To identify several possible causes for a certain phenomenon.
C) To generate a large body of information about the phenomena being studied.
D) To generate new hypotheses.
Answer Key:
A) To establish cause-and-effect relationship between independent and dependent variables
Q49. Which one of the following makes ex-post facto research different from experimental research?
A) Scales of measurement used for measuring variables.
B) Size of sample selected for comparison.
C) Type of relations established.
D) Types of statistical techniques used.
Answer Key:
C) Type of relations established.
Q50. Ex-Post Facto research study would be preferred over an experimental method where it is NOT possible to:
A) Make use of computers
B) Manipulate the variables
C) Randomize while sampling
D) Use standardized tests
Answer Key:
B) Manipulate the variables
Q51. Ex-Post Facto research means the research which is carried out:
A) after the incident.
B) along with happening of the incident.
C) keeping in mind the possibilities of the incident.
D) prior to the incident.
Answer Key:
A) after the incident.
Q52. Which one of the following needs to be considered while stating problems in an Ex-Post Facto research study?
A) Stating the problem in the form of an objective when it is not possible to predict the difference between the defined and the comparison groups.
B) Write as many alternative hypotheses as possible.
C) Both (A) and (B).
D) Neither (A) nor (B).
Answer Key:
A) Stating the problem in the form of an objective when it is not possible to predict the difference between the defined and the comparison groups.
Q53. Which one of the following is the technique used to develop a prediction of criterion behaviour from a combination of Predictive measures?
A) Multiple regression
B) Differential analysis
C) Simple correlation
D) Partial Correlation
Answer Key:
A) Multiple regression
Q54. The purpose of coding data from an interview schedule, questionnaire or observation form is to:
A) determine the reliability and validity of the instrument
B) analyze the information presented in the instrument
C) standardize the data from the instrument
D) summarize the information given in the body of the instrument
Answer Key:
D) summarize the information given in the body of the instrument
Q55. Which one of the following does ‘NOT’ complete the statement?
In order to make use of data collected using scales on a questionnaire, it is important to:
A) tally the responses on a blank questionnaire
B) quantify the scales on each questionnaire item
C) assign low numbers to the low end of the scale
D) use an appropriate statistical technique
Answer Key:
A) tally the responses on a blank questionnaire
Q56. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ necessary when conducting an interview for the purpose of collecting data?
A) the interviewer should be alert to expressions and gestures used by the respondent
B) the respondent should be aware of the feelings and attitudes of the interviewer
C) the interviewer must be interested, friendly and informal
D) the respondent must understand and accept the method of recording data
Answer Key:
B) the respondent should be aware of the feelings and attitudes of the interviewer
Q57. Which of the following procedures should ‘NOT’ be adopted when gathering data through observation?
A) establish rapport and make yourself inconspicuous so as not to interfere with the atmosphere
B) make notes on observations as soon as the event is over
C) analyze as much of the data during the observation as possible
D) take notes on individuals and conditions even when using a pre-prepared schedule
Answer Key:
C) analyze as much of the data during the observation as possible
Q58. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ an aspect of good practice when mailing surveys to respondents?
A) making a direct reference to confidentiality in the accompanying letter
B) in follow-up letters, suggesting that non-response is normal
C) including a stamped, addressed envelope for the return of the instrument
D) stressing the importance of the survey and the value of the respondent’s cooperation
Answer Key:
B) in follow-up letters, suggesting that non-response is normal
Q59. To measure the personality of students of technical institutions, the preferred measuring instrument will be:
A) questionnaire
B) interview schedule
C) observation schedule
D) standardized test
Answer Key:
D) standardized test
Q60. If the researcher is interested in determining the trends of enrolment for the last ten years in various disciplines offered by Rajasthan Technical University, the preferred measuring instrument will be:
A) questionnaire
B) interview schedule
C) observation schedule
D) standardized test
Answer Key:
A) questionnaire
Q61. If the researcher is interested in answering why and how questions, the preferred measuring instrument will be :
A) questionnaire
B) interview schedule
C) observation schedule
D) standardized test
Answer Key:
B) interview schedule
Q62. Standardized test provide for:
A) reliability indices
B) validity indices
C) norms
D) all of the above
Answer Key:
D) all of the above
Q63. Observation schedules can include:
A) checklists
B) rating scales
C) frequency/counters
D) all of the above
Answer Key:
D) all of the above
Q64. Interview schedule can be:
A) structured
B) semi-structured
C) unstructured
D) all of the above
Answer Key:
D) all of the above
Q65. Which of the following is NOT the principle of designing a questionnaire:
A) pose indirect question
B) use easy language
C) avoid double negatives
D) avoid leading questions
Answer Key:
A) pose indirect question
Q66. Specify the problems faced on account of shortage of faculty in the institution. – The item/question is an example of
A) multiple response type item
B) rating type item
C) ranking type
D) open-ended questions
Answer Key:
D) open-ended questions
Q67. Which of the following instructional media you use in class:
i. Power Point Slides,
ii. You tube Video,
iii. Animations & simulations,
iv. Charts,
v. Laboratory manual,
vi. Text books,
The above item is an example of:
A) matching type
B) multiple choice type
C) multiple response type
D) true/false
Answer Key:
C) multiple response type
Q68. Which of the following describes ‘Any variable on which the measure is taken in order to determine whether the experimental condition has had an effect.’
A) dependent variable
B) extraneous variable
C) independent variable
D) none of these
Answer Key:
A) dependent variable
Q69. Which of the following statements best defines experimental research?
Research in which:
A) extraneous variables are removed.
B) random samples are mandatory.
C) rival hypotheses are tested.
D) Variable is manipulated and its effect Is studied on another variable.
Answer Key:
D) Variable is manipulated and its effect Is studied on another variable.
Q70. Internal validity refers to:
A) an inadequate description of the variables within the experiment
B) controlling factors affecting the generalizability of the experiment.
C) controlling variables that cause contamination within the experiment.
D) the effect of maturation on the experiment
Answer Key:
C) controlling variables that cause contamination within the experiment.
Q71. Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions that must be met in order to state confidently that the independent variable caused differences between groups in the dependent variable?
A) eliminating plausible alternative explanations for the differences in the dependent variable.
B) establishing a covariation between the independent and dependent variable.
C) establishing a time-order relationship such that the change in the independent variable preceded the change in the dependent variable.
D) establishing that the independent variable is the only factor that could ever cause a change in the dependent variable.
Answer Key:
D) establishing that the independent variable is the only factor that could ever cause a change in the dependent variable.
Q72. Mr. Gupta’s Mathematics class was not chosen to participate in a new computer-based program. His students were furious that they were not selected so they set out to show those researchers that they were better anyway! The results of the study would be confounded by the:
A) Hawthorne effect.
B) John Henry effect.
C) Placebo effect.
D) Researcher effect.
Answer Key:
B) John Henry effect.
Q73. Control in experimental research is BEST described as an attempt to:
A) equate the subjects on the treatment variable.
B) increase the generalizability of findings.
C) limit threats to external validity.
D) limit threats to internal validity.
Answer Key:
D) limit threats to internal validity.
Q74. The purpose of Action Research in education is to:
A) Contribute to the new knowledge.
B) Develop a new product.
C) Improve the educational/classroom practices.
D) Verify the established theories.
Answer Key:
C) Improve the educational/classroom practices.
Q75. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Action Research?
A) It makes rigorous use of the scientific method.
B) It employs the use of formative evaluation.
C) The members. involved in conducting the research are also responsible for implementation.
D) The study relates to a specific situation.
Answer Key:
A) It makes rigorous use of the scientific method.
Q76. Many universities do not allow action research studies to satisfy dissertation requirements, most likely, because:
A) findings are not immediately useful.
B) results are not of broad relevance.
C) Both (A) and (B).
D) Neither (A) nor (B).
Answer Key:
B) results are not of broad relevance.
Q77. The action research method is depicted as a spiraling process because:
A) action researcher continues to study other topics of interest after the initial study is complete.
B) data collection continues throughout data analysis.
C) process continues even after the data are collected and analyzed, and actions are taken based on findings.
D) results are analyzed and used by other researchers to conduct additional investigations of the topic.
Answer Key:
C) process continues even after the data are collected and analyzed, and actions are taken based on findings.
Q78. A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter, while measure based upon a sample is known as:
A) Inference
B) Statistics
C) Sample Parameter
D) None of the above
Answer Key:
B) Statistics
Q79. Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling?
A) Sample units must be clearly defined
B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
C) Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
D) Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner.
Answer Key:
B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
Q80. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
A) Quota Sampling
B) Stratified Random Sampling
C) Judgemental Sampling
D) Convenience Sampling
Answer Key:
B) Stratified Random Sampling
Q81. When a research problem is related to the heterogeneous population, the most suitable sampling method is :
A) Random sampling method
B) Cluster Sampling
C) Stratified Random Sampling
D) Convenience sampling
Answer Key:
C) Stratified Random Sampling
Q82. Suppose you want to investigate the skill efficiency of technical graduates in India, which of the following would you follow:
A) Area Sampling
B) Quota Sampling
C) Snowball sampling
D) Convenience Sampling
Answer Key:
A) Area Sampling
Q83. Which of the following is not an advantage of the simple random sampling technique over other techniques?
A) requires a minimum knowledge of the population
B) is free of errors in classification
C) is appropriate for data analysis which includes inferential statistics
D) Provide homogeneity of subjects used in the sample
Answer Key:
D) Provide homogeneity of subjects used in the sample
Q84. Which of the following statements best describes a stratified random sample?
A sample drawn:
A) independent and systematically from each stratum of the population.
B) purposively and systematically from a stratum of the population.
C) purposively and randomly from a stratum of the population.
D) independently and randomly from each stratum of the population.
Answer Key:
D) independently and randomly from each stratum of the population.
Q85. Which of the following scales of measurement has an absolute zero?
A) nominal scale
B) ordinal scale
C) interview scale
D) ratio scale
Answer Key:
D) ratio scale
Q86. Which one of the following is the principle of graphic representation?
A) include visually distracting details
B) difficult to read
C) use consistent style
D) need no planning
Answer Key:
C) use consistent style
Q87. Which one of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?
A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) range
Answer Key:
D) range
Q88. Which one of the following is ‘NOT’ a characteristic of the Normal Probability Curve?
A) mean, median and mode are at different points
B) it is bilaterally symmetrical
C) it is asymptomatic to x-axis
D) it is uni-modal
Answer Key:
A) mean, median and mode are at different points
Q89. When the data on two variables are available on nominal scale, the correlation method used will be:
A) chi-square
B) pearson-product moment correlation
C) bi-serial correlation
D) partial correlation
Answer Key:
A) chi-square
Q90. In case, you are interested in determining the differences in utilization of mobile phones for education purpose in hours per day among students of 6-14 years, 15-25 years, 26-40 years and 40 years and above, the statistical technique preferred will be:
A) t-test
B) ANOVA
C) Pearson product moment correlation
D) chi square test
Answer Key:
B) ANOVA
Q91. Good research proposals will always:
A) Focus on writing researcher’s name, qualification, and addresses.
B) focus on writing references in API style.
C) Focus on all possible research that had previously been done on the topic.
D) focus on addressing the research objectives.
Answer Key:
D) focus on addressing the research objectives.
Q92. An Action Research proposal is usually shorter in length than other proposals because:
A) It involves less rigor and refinement.
B) It is not likely to be read by anyone of importance.
C) It needs to be sent by mail to other researchers.
D) It has a smaller audience and no request for funds.
Answer Key:
D) It has a smaller audience and no request for funds.
Q93. A funding request proposal needs to be accurate, complete and persuasive because:
A) the problem statement in this kind of proposal is difficult to identify.
B) the problem involves specific procedures and instruments.
C) its purpose is to allocate limited financial resources.
D) it justifies the requirements for undertaking the programme.
Answer Key:
C) its purpose is to allocate limited financial resources.
Q94. The key idea of writing a ‘Topic Outline’ in the process of preparing a proposal is to:
A) Describe the purpose of the study and type of proposal needed.
B) Describe the significance of the study.
C) Obtain colleague’s feedback about the completed proposal.
D) Revise the proposal based on feedback received.
Answer Key:
A) Describe the purpose of the study and type of proposal needed.
Q95. Which section of the proposal is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of the research question?
A) Introduction
B) Literature Review
C) References
D) Proposed Methodology
Answer Key:
A) Introduction
Q96. The fellowships for programme at IITs/NITs to students is provided by:
A) All India Institute of Technical Education
B) University Grants Commission
C) Department of Atomic Energy
D) Department of Education
Answer Key:
B) University Grants Commission
Q97. Skill and personality development programme centre for SC/ST students is set up by
A) All India Council for Technical Education
B) University Grants Commission
C) Department of Science and Technology
D) Department of Science and Industrial Research
Answer Key:
A) All India Council for Technical Education
Q98. The researcher before writing a research report should:
A) know the purpose of the Audience
B) know the background of the Audience
C) what he/she already knows/does not know
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q99. The Preliminary Section of Research Report does not include:
A) Acknowledgements
B) List of Tables & Graphs
C) Summary of literature Review
D) Table of Contents
Answer Key:
C) Summary of literature Review
Q100. Which of the following best describes how Tables and Figures should be arranged in a research report?
A) All Tables and Figures to be placed in the Appendix.
B) All Tables and Figures to be integrated into the presentation and Analysis of data.
C) All Tables and Figures to be compiled into one section of the presentation and Analysis of data.
D) All Tables and Figures to be compiled and placed in a separate chapter.
Answer Key:
B) All Tables and Figures to be integrated into the presentation and Analysis of data.
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