Q1: Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a creative person?
A) Ability to abstract
B) Originality
C) Re-definition skills
D) Fear of Failure
Answer Key:
D) Fear of Failure
Q2: The first step in Creative problem solving is:
A) Generating alternate solutions
B) Understanding the problem
C) Evaluating the alternatives
D) Developing a solution
Answer Key:
B) Understanding the problem
Q3: Elaboration in Creativity refers to:
A) Ability to define problems
B) Ability to generate varied ideas
C) Ability to abstract
D) Ability to fill-in the details
Answer Key:
D) Ability to fill-in the details
Q4: Spontaneous flexibility refers to:
A) Generating quantities of ideas
B) Change in direction of thinking without any instruction to do so
C) Ability to generate novel ideas
D) Ability to abstract
Answer Key:
B) Change in direction of thinking without any instruction to do so
Q5: Which of the following is a technique of generating ideas.
A) Attribute listing
B) Paired comparison
C) Must versus Not
D) Evaluation matrix
Answer Key:
A) Attribute listing
Q6: The first step in brain writing technique is:
A) Discussion
B) Round Robin recording
C) Prioritization
D) Silent recording & elaboration
Answer Key:
D) Silent recording & elaboration
Q7: The last step in the process of innovation is:
A) Diffusion and implementation
B) Advocacy and screening
C) Experimentation
D) Commercialization
Answer Key:
A) Diffusion and implementation
Q8: In design thinking, prototype is developed at the stage of:
A) Discover
B) Define
C) Create
D) Evaluate
Answer Key:
C) Create
Q9: Process innovation involves the:
A) Development of a new service
B) Development of a new product
C) Implementation of a new method of production
D) Introducing organization wide Change
Answer Key:
C) Implementation of a new method of production
Q10: Sixth generation innovation model is a:
A) Network model
B) Open innovation model
C) Coupling model
D) Market pull model
Answer Key:
B) Open innovation model
Q11: The correct sequence of stages in the development of a team is:
A) Forming, Norming, Storming, Performing, Adjournment
B) Norming, Forming, Adjournment, Storming, Performing
C) Adjournment, Forming, Norming, Storming, Performing
D) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjournment
Answer Key:
D) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjournment
Q12: Team members are selected primarily on the basis of their:
A) Age
B) Experience
C) Competence
D) Qualifications
Answer Key:
C) Competence
Q13: The standards of behavior and performance for a team are normally developed at the stage of:
A) Forming
B) Norming
C) Storming
D) Performing
Answer Key:
B) Norming
Q14: In development of a team, conflict resolution and problem solving occur at the stage of:
A) Forming
B) Norming
C) Storming
D) Performing
Answer Key:
D) Performing
Q15: Formal adjournment is essential to:
A) Motivate members to work again in future
B) Finalize the report
C) Finalize the expenditure
D) Evaluate the work done
Answer Key:
A) Motivate members to work again in future
Q16: Which of the following is NOT the purpose of education research?
A) Answer philosophical questions
B) Generate new knowledge
C) Solve real life problems
D) Evaluate the programmes, policies etc.
Answer Key:
A) Answer philosophical questions
Q17: Finding solutions to the real life problems is the purpose of:
A) Basic research
B) Applied research
C) Action research
D) Evaluation research
Answer Key:
B) Applied research
Q18: To evaluate the policies and programmes is the function of:
A) Applied research
B) Action research
C) Basic research
D) Evaluation research
Answer Key:
D) Evaluation research
Q19: The steps in undertaking research include:
I. Selecting and defining a problem
II. Collection of data
III. Analyzing the data & interpreting the results
IV. Selecting research design and describing procedure
The correct sequence of the steps involved in undertaking research is:
A) I-II-III-IV
B) I-IV-II-III
C) I-III- IV- II
D) III-I-II-IV
Answer Key:
B) I-IV-II-III
Q20: Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in selecting and describing procedure in the process of research?
A) Selecting a research design, selecting a sample, selecting statistical techniques for analyzing the data, selecting or developing measuring instruments
B) Selecting a research design, selecting a sample, selecting & developing measuring instruments, selecting statistical techniques for analyzing the data
C) Selecting a research design, selecting or developing measuring instruments, selecting statistical techniques for analyzing the data, selecting a sample
D) Selecting a sample, selecting research design, selecting & developing measuring instruments, selecting statistical techniques for analyzing the data
Answer Key:
B) Selecting a research design, selecting a sample, selecting & developing measuring instruments, selecting statistical techniques for analyzing the data
Q21: In case, you are interested in determining the relationship between the two variables, you will undertake:
A) Descriptive research
B) Correlation research
C) Ex-post Facto research
D) Experimental research
Answer Key:
B) Correlation research
Q22: If the purpose of your research is to establish true cause and effect relationship between the differential career guidance strategies and vocational maturity patterns of students, you will use
A) Correlation research
B) Ex-post Facto research
C) Experimental research
D) Survey research
Answer Key:
C) Experimental research
Q23: If the researcher is interested in studying the readiness of students of technical institutions for MOOCs, the type of research preferred will be:
A) Correlation research
B) Experimental research
C) Descriptive research
D) Ex-post Facto research
Answer Key:
C) Descriptive research
Q24: The process of developing and validating educational products is referred to as:
A) Applied research
B) Evaluation research
C) Basic research
D) Education research & development
Answer Key:
D) Education research & development
Q25: If you are interested in studying the effect of blended learning on achievement in mobile communication and ability to work in teams of third year students, you will undertake:
A) Survey research
B) Case study research
C) Ex-post Facto research
D) Experimental research
Answer Key:
D) Experimental research
Q26: The study on Determining the factors responsible for failure of an Electronics Company will use:
A) Survey research
B) Content analysis research
C) Case study method
D) Correlation research
Answer Key:
C) Case study method
Q27: Which of the following is an example of case study research?
A) Effect of soft skill training on the employability skills of students
B) Extent of implementation of TQM in an industry in Ludhiana
C) Effect of parental education on the performance of students in Board examination
D) Strategies adopted by small scale industry in Punjab for increasing the market share
Answer Key:
B) Extent of implementation of TQM in an industry in Ludhiana
Q28: The hypothesis” There exists no significant difference in the achievement in the course on software development of boys and girls taught through active learning strategies and lecture method” is appropriate for a/an:
A) Experimental study
B) Ex-post Facto study
C) Correlation study
D) Survey study
Answer Key:
A) Experimental study
Q29: If you are interested in finding out the how the graduates from your institution have progressed in the teaching career during the last five years, you will undertake a/an:
A) Case study
B) Experimental study
C) Tracer study
D) Content analysis research
Answer Key:
C) Tracer study
Q30: In an ex-post facto study, the researcher can:
A) Select groups randomly
B) Establish true cause and effect relationship
C) Establish tentative cause and effect relationship
D) Manipulate independent variable
Answer Key:
C) Establish tentative cause and effect relationship
Q31: Which of the following is the correct way of writing a reference for a journal article retrieved from a website?
A) Jameson, J. (2013). E-Leadership in higher education: The fifth “age” of educational technology research. British Journal of Educational Technology, 44(6), 889-915. doi: 10.1111/bjet.12103
B) Jameson, J. (2013). E-Leadership in higher education: The fifth “age” of educational technology research. British Journal of Educational Technology, 44(6), 889-915. doi: 10.1111/bjet.12103
C) Jameson, J. (2013). E-Leadership in higher education: The fifth “age” of educational technology research. British Journal of Educational Technology, 44(6), 889-915. doi: 10.1111/bjet.12103
D) Jameson, J. (2013). E-Leadership in higher education: The fifth “age” of educational technology research. British Journal of Educational Technology, 44(6), 889-915. doi: 10.1111/bjet.12103
Answer Key:
Dropped
Q32: The first step in the process of review of related literature is to:
A) Formulate hypotheses for the study
B) Identify the key words
C) Identify the sources of the information
D) Abstract the information
Answer Key:
B) Identify the key words
Q33: If you abstract similar information across previous research studies, it will help you in:
A) Stating objectives
B) Formulating hypotheses
C) Selecting measuring tools
D) Synthesizing the review of related literature
Answer Key:
D) Synthesizing the review of related literature
Q34: Synthesis of review of related literature is done at the stage of:
A) Analyzing, organizing and reporting the literature
B) Abstracting the information
C) Identifying sources of information
D) Identifying key words to guide the search
Answer Key:
A) Analyzing, organizing and reporting the literature
Q35: Which of the following is an example of secondary source of information?
A) Annotated Bibliography
B) Encyclopedia
C) References
D) Indexes
Answer Key:
B) Encyclopedia
Q36: Which of the following questions CANNOT be answered through research?
A) Are the institutions of higher learning ready to implement choice based credit system in various programmes?
B) Can the job success be predicted on the basis of final scores in three years diploma programme?
C) What is meant by Autonomy?
D) What are the students’ reactions towards Choice based Credit system?
Answer Key:
C) What is meant by Autonomy?
Q37: The function of a research hypothesis is to:
A) Consider the problem in the form of a scientific statement
B) Link the research problem with the research question
C) Suggest a possible answer to a problem, based on available facts or information
D) Summarize the notion behind the research study
Answer Key:
C) Suggest a possible answer to a problem, based on available facts or information
Q38: In a study on ‘ Effect of micro credential course on the leadership, creative problem solving and team work skills of students’, the independent variable is:
A) Leadership
B) Creative problem solving
C) Team work
D) Micro credential course.
Answer Key:
D) Micro credential course.
Q39: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Action research?
A) Context specific
B) Findings are applicable only to the sample studied
C) Rigorous controls are exercised
D) Undertaken by a practitioner
Answer Key:
C) Rigorous controls are exercised
Q40: An administrator wants to improve motivation of his employees by changing his leadership style, he will undertake:
A) Applied research
B) Survey research
C) Action research
D) Basic research
Answer Key:
C) Action research
Q41: The variable that is manipulated in an experimental research is referred to as:
A) Control variable
B) Dependent variable
C) Extraneous variable
D) Independent variable
Answer Key:
D) Independent variable
Q42: Which of the following variables the researcher will not be able to manipulate?
A) Instructional methods
B) Instructional media
C) Feedback
D) Previous attainments of the learner
Answer Key:
D) Previous attainments of the learner
Q43: For a study “Type of industry, ownership and location as factors responsible for differentials in the salary, training & development and career progression of employees ‘, the method of research preferred will be:
A) Survey research
B) Ex-post Facto research
C) Experimental research
D) Case study research
Answer Key:
B) Ex-post Facto research
Q44: To determine the effect of virtual training on the problem solving skills of students of ECE is an example of:
A) Research objective
B) Research question
C) Directional hypothesis
D) Non directional hypothesis
Answer Key:
A) Research objective
Q45: Which of the following is NOT an example of a research question for a descriptive study?
A) What is the coverage of content in the videos produced by teachers for blended learning?
B) What are the qualifications and teaching experience of teachers working in the polytechnics of Bhopal?
C) What are the perceptions of students towards MOOCs?
D) What is the effect of integration of case studies in teaching learning on the analytical ability of final year students of electrical engineering?
Answer Key:
D) What is the effect of integration of case studies in teaching learning on the analytical ability of final year students of electrical engineering?
Q46: Which of the following is a directional hypothesis?
A) Girls show significantly higher problem solving skills after structured industrial training than the boys
B) There are no significant differences in the problem solving skills of experimental and control group students
C) There are significant differences in the problem solving ability of experimental and control group students.
D) There is significant effect of structured industrial training on the problem solving skills of students.
Answer Key:
A) Girls show significantly higher problem solving skills after structured industrial training than the boys
Q47: In a study on ‘Predicting effectiveness as a leader on the basis of self awareness, communication and emotional intelligence of engineers’, which is the criterion variable?
A) Emotional intelligence
B) Communication
C) Self awareness
D) Effectiveness of Leader
Answer Key:
D) Effectiveness of Leader
Q48: In an experimental study, if post-test only control group design is used, which of the following statistical technique can be used to study the mean differences?
A) Chi-square
B) t- Test
C) ANOVA
D) ANCOVA
Answer Key:
B) t- Test
Q49: Which one of the following variables is dichotomous?
A) Rural/Urban
B) Age
C) Intelligence
D) Achievement scores
Answer Key:
A) Rural/Urban
Q50: If you are interested in finding out the differences in the readiness for MOOCs of male and female students studying in various years of four years degree programme in government and private engineering colleges of UP, you will prefer to select sample using:
A) Simple random sampling technique
B) Systematic random sampling technique
C) Stratified random sampling technique
D) Cluster sampling technique
Answer Key:
C) Stratified random sampling technique
Q51: If a researcher wants to identify the notes taking skills of the toppers of the various branches of engineering in the polytechnics of Kerala, the sampling technique used will be:
A) Cluster Sampling
B) Simple random Sampling
C) Purposive sampling
D) Systematic Sampling
Answer Key:
C) Purposive sampling
Q52: Which of the following techniques of sampling is not a Probability Sampling technique?
A) Simple random sampling
B) Stratified random sampling
C) Purposive sampling
D) Cluster sampling
Answer Key:
C) Purposive sampling
Q53: Thirty is the minimum sample required for a:
A) Correlation research
B) Experimental research
C) Ex-post Facto research
D) Survey research
Answer Key:
A) Correlation research
Q54: If you are interested in studying the reasons for twenty-five students’ missing the workshop practice classes in specific, you will prefer to select sample by using the technique of:
A) Cluster sampling
B) Purposive sampling
C) Simple random sampling
D) Stratified random sampling
Answer Key:
B) Purposive sampling
Q55: If you decide to select a fixed number of male and female students sample from the population, the sampling technique used is:
A) Quota sampling
B) Systematic sampling
C) Simple random sampling
D) Purposive sampling
Answer Key:
A) Quota sampling
Q56: If you are interested in studying CEOs of companies who graduated from a particular technical institution during the year 1965-70, but have no information regarding the population but only a reference of a few CEOs from the concerned institution, the sampling technique preferred will be:
A) Volunteer sampling technique
B) Purposive sampling technique
C) Simple random sampling technique
D) Snowball sampling technique
Answer Key:
D) Snowball sampling technique
Q57: Stratified random sampling technique will be appropriate when:
A) Population is homogeneous
B) Population is heterogeneous
C) Population is small
D) Population is large
Answer Key:
B) Population is heterogeneous
Q58: If you are interested in collecting data on nature of questions posed , how those questions are posed and the feedback provided by teachers in the classrooms, the measuring instrument you would prefer will be a/an:
A) Interview schedule
B) Questionnaire
C) Observation schedule
D) Standardized Test
Answer Key:
C) Observation schedule
Q59: If you are interested in finding out how teachers deal with the students who create indiscipline in the class, you will prefer a/an:
A) Standardized Test
B) Observation schedule
C) Structured interview schedule
D) Semi-structured interview schedule
Answer Key:
D) Semi-structured interview schedule
Q60: A schedule containing only the broad questions to be posed but not the specific questions, is an example of:
A) Semi structured interview schedule
B) Questionnaire
C) Structured interview schedule
D) Unstructured interview schedule
Answer Key:
A) Semi structured interview schedule
Q61: In the process of development of questionnaire, questions/items are written after:
A) Purpose of the study
B) Research objectives
C) Research questions
D) Criterion questions
Answer Key:
D) Criterion questions
Q62: The item” Please tick mark the assessment methods used for assessing students’ performance:
- Assignments
- Quizzes
- Discussion
- Seminar
- Term Paper
- Project work”
is an example of:
A) Multiple choice item
B) True/ False item
C) Multiple response type item
D) Matching type item
Answer Key:
C) Multiple response type item
Q63: If you are interested in determining the pass percentages from various programmes during last five years, you will prefer a/an:
A) Standardized test
B) Questionnaire
C) Structured Interview schedule
D) Semi-structured interview schedule
Answer Key:
B) Questionnaire
Q64: If more than one person is involved in collection of data/information through interviews, it is essential that:
A) Training be provided to interviewers
B) Different interview schedules are used
C) Different aspects are assessed by different interviewers
D) Same person may be interviewed by more than one interviewer
Answer Key:
A) Training be provided to interviewers
Q65: If the correlation between job autonomy and job satisfaction for engineering graduates is positive, it means
A) Higher the job autonomy, higher is the job satisfaction of graduate engineers
B) Lower the job autonomy, higher is the job satisfaction of graduate engineers
C) Higher the job autonomy, lower is the job satisfaction of graduate engineers
D) With an increase in the job autonomy, there is no change in the scores in the job satisfaction of graduate engineers
Answer Key:
A) Higher the job autonomy, higher is the job satisfaction of graduate engineers
Q66: The researcher should pose the questions in the same sequence in case of:
A) Questionnaire
B) Structured interview schedule
C) Semi-structured interview schedule
D) Unstructured interview schedule
Answer Key:
B) Structured interview schedule
Q67: While collecting data through observation schedule, the researcher need NOT:
A) Disturb the ongoing process
B) Record his/her comments
C) Pose questions
D) Rate the ongoing process
Answer Key:
A) Disturb the ongoing process
Q68: In research, the question ‘How well the results of an experimental research can be applied to other settings’ concerns:
A) Reliability
B) Internal validity
C) External validity
D) Practicality
Answer Key:
C) External validity
Q69: Highest score minus the lowest score in the distribution represents:
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Range
D) Mode
Answer Key:
C) Range
Q70: If you have Mean and SD of students achievement in five courses and you are interested in finding out the significance of mean differences, which of the following statistical technique you will use?
A) Analysis of variance
B) Analysis of covariance
C) Chi- square
D) t-test
Answer Key:
A) Analysis of variance
Q71: In addition to other components, Funding proposal need to include:
A) Rationale
B) Financial requirements
C) Objectives
D) Methodology
Answer Key:
B) Financial requirements
Q72: Which of the following is NOT a part of a Research proposal?
A) Objectives
B) Rationale
C) Review of related literature
D) Findings
Answer Key:
D) Findings
Q73: Which section of the proposal is likely to include objectives of the study in the research proposal?
A) Introduction
B) Literature review
C) Proposed methodology
D) References
Answer Key:
A) Introduction
Q74: In a research report, acknowledgement forms a part of:
A) Preliminary material
B) Introduction
C) Methodology
D) Reference material
Answer Key:
A) Preliminary material
Q75: Which of the following sections does NOT belong to the introductory section of a research report?
A) Definitions of the terms
B) Description of Sample
C) Literature Review
D) Research Questions
Answer Key:
B) Description of Sample
Q76: Which of the following is the structure of a thesis?
A) Introduction, Methods and Procedure, Analysis of Data and Results, Summary and Conclusions, Review of related literature, References
B) Introduction, Methods and Procedure, References, Analysis of Data and Results, References, Review of related literature
C) Introduction, Review of related literature, Methods and Procedure, Analysis of Data and Results, Summary and Conclusions, References
D) Introduction, Review of related literature, Methods and Procedure, Analysis of Data and Results, References, Summary and Conclusions
Answer Key:
C) Introduction, Review of related literature, Methods and Procedure, Analysis of Data and Results, Summary and Conclusions, References
Q77: Commissioned evaluation is carried out in case of a:
A) Thesis
B) Research article
C) Externally Funded research project
D) Term Paper
Answer Key:
C) Externally Funded research project
Q78: Experimental procedure needs to be adequately explained in order to:
A) Enhance internal validity
B) Facilitate replication of experiment by others
C) Generalize the findings of the study
D) Exercise appropriate controls
Answer Key:
B) Facilitate replication of experiment by others
Q79: In case, you intend to apply for a project which is inter disciplinary in nature and your institution does not have all discipline specific expertise, you will:
A) Not apply for the project
B) Submit partial proposal
C) Collaborate with experts from other organizations/Institutions
D) Ask your institution to hire persons with the needed expertise
Answer Key:
C) Collaborate with experts from other organizations/Institutions
Q80: If teaching sessions are recorded for newly recruited faculty and then analyzed by the researcher for identifying strategies used by teachers to enhance student engagement, the method of research used is referred to as:
A) Content analysis
B) Participant observation
C) Non-participant observation
D) Interview
Answer Key:
A) Content analysis
Q81: R O1 X O2
O3 O4
represents:
A) Pretest post test control group design
B) Post test only control group design
C) Post test only design
D) One group pretest post test design
Answer Key:
A) Pretest post test control group design
Q82: Two tailed t-test will be preferred in case of:
A) There is significant negative relationship between job success and mechanical aptitude possessed by graduate mechanical engineers.
B) There is significant positive correlation between job success and mechanical aptitude of graduate mechanical engineers.
C) There are no significant differences in the job success of students with high and low mechanical aptitude.
D) Students with high mechanical aptitude show significantly higher job success than the students with low aptitude
Answer Key:
C) There are no significant differences in the job success of students with high and low mechanical aptitude.
Q83: Which of the following is NOT applicable to a hypothesis?
A) Plausible
B) Developed prior to collection of data
C) Testable
D) Stated in question form
Answer Key:
D) Stated in question form
Q84: In case, the previous studies provide contradictory findings related to the relationship between autonomy to institution and achievement of students, which one of the following will be an appropriate hypothesis?
A) There exists significant relationship between the institutional autonomy and student achievement
B) Higher the institutional autonomy higher will be the student achievement
C) Higher the institutional autonomy, lower will be the student achievement
D) There exists no relationship between institutional autonomy and achievement of students
Answer Key:
D) There exists no relationship between institutional autonomy and achievement of students
Q85: For collecting data through semi-structured interviews, the researcher need to possess the skill of:
A) Decision making
B) Interpreting the non-verbal behavior
C) Problem solving
D) Negotiation skills
Answer Key:
B) Interpreting the non-verbal behavior
Q86: If you are interested in studying the effect of positive and negative feedback provided during instruction on the motivation and achievement of students, you will manipulate the variable of:
A) Achievement
B) Feedback
C) Motivation
D) Instructional strategy
Answer Key:
B) Feedback
Q87: Application of scientific method to finding solution to the real life problem is referred to as:
A) Logical reasoning
B) Inductive reasoning
C) Deductive reasoning
D) Research
Answer Key:
D) Research
Q88: While evaluating sample for the study, the criteria should include:
A) Representative of the population
B) Reliable
C) Valid
D) Objective
Answer Key:
A) Representative of the population
Q89: A research report presents conclusions based on:
A) Impression
B) Investigation
C) Belief
D) Intuition
Answer Key:
B) Investigation
Q90: Type I error is made when:
A) Null hypothesis is accepted though the differences actually exist.
B) Null hypothesis is rejected although no significant differences exist
C) Directional hypothesis is rejected although true differences exist
D) Alternate hypothesis is accepted though no true differences actually exist
Answer Key:
B) Null hypothesis is rejected although no significant differences exist
Q91: Which of the following may be one of the criteria for evaluating Introduction in a research report?
A) Concise abstract
B) Correct title
C) Accuracy of Table of contents
D) Adequate justification for the problem
Answer Key:
D) Adequate justification for the problem
Q92: While evaluating the Chapter on Analysis of Data & Interpretation of results, The evaluation criteria must include:
A) Adequacy
B) Brevity
C) Accuracy
D) Relevance
Answer Key:
C) Accuracy
Q93: References as per APA style are presented in:
A) Alphabetical order
B) Chronological order
C) The sequence in which they appear in text
D) Random order
Answer Key:
A) Alphabetical order
Q94: The preliminary section of the research report does NOT include:
A) Acknowledgement
B) List of Tables
C) List of Figures
D) List of references
Answer Key:
D) List of references
Q95: In the process of arriving at specific research problem, list of relevant facts and explanation is generated after:
A) Enlisting the possible factors
B) Elimination of irrelevant factors
C) Basic assumptions
D) Identifying research situation
Answer Key:
B) Elimination of irrelevant factors
Q96: While evaluating interpretation of findings, which of the following criterion is NOT considered?
A) Accuracy
B) Supported by previous studies
C) Reasons cited for results obtained
D) Description of population
Answer Key:
D) Description of population
Q97: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good sample?
A) Adequate
B) Representative
C) Cultural bias
D) Random selection
Answer Key:
C) Cultural bias
Q98: The question, out of the total enrolment in the institute, enrolment in first year constitutes:
- Less than 10%
- Less than 20%
- Less than 30%
- Less than 40%
is inappropriate because:
A) It is clearly stated
B) Language used is simple
C) It does not use mutually exclusive categories
D) Poses a direct question
Answer Key:
C) It does not use mutually exclusive categories
Q99: Counters are used in case of:
A) Observation schedule
B) Questionnaire
C) Structured interview schedule
D) Semi structured interview schedule
Answer Key:
A) Observation schedule
Q100: The most appropriate graphical representation of students in a class securing A, B, C, D, & E is:
A) Bar graph
B) Histogram
C) Pie graph
D) Column graph
Answer Key:
C) Pie graph
For updates and discussion on NITTT modules join our telegram group