Q1. Which term best describes the process of obtaining, deploying, and utilizing a variety of essential resources to contribute to an institution’s success?
A) planning
B) organizing
C) staffing
D) management
Answer Key:
D) management
Q2. In Institutional management, the function of Budgeting is:
A) Financial Planning
B) Accounting
C) Control and expenditure
D) All of the Above
Answer Key:
D) All of the Above
Q3. In what order do institutional managers typically perform the managerial functions?
A) organising, planning, controlling, leading
B) organising, leading, planning, controlling
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling
D) planning, organising, controlling, leading
Answer Key:
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling
Q4. Which one of the following statement is correct?
A) Planning and controlling are essentially one and the same
B) Controlling is a part of the planning process
C) Controlling is a substitute for planning
D) A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals
Answer Key:
D) A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals
Q5. Planning for the Institution should be based on:
A) Syllabus
B) Aims and Needs
C) Resources
D) All of the Above mentioned
Answer Key:
B) Aims and Needs
Q6. Goals of the institution should be:
A) Relevant
B) Achievable
C) Specific
D) All of the Above
Answer Key:
D) All of the Above
Q7. The assumptions about the environment in which an institutional plans are formulated and executed are:
A) A regular follow-up
B) Derivative plans
C) Planning Premises
D) Setting of objectives
Answer Key:
C) Planning Premises
Q8. Planning begins with:
A) assessing and choosing the best alternative
B) designing evaluation procedures
C) selecting material
D) setting of objectives
Answer Key:
D) setting of objectives
Q9. Which level of management is responsible for implementing programs that are intended to carry out the broader objectives of an institution set by executives?
A) shop floor workers
B) middle level managers
C) first level managers
D) chief financial managers
Answer Key:
B) middle level managers
Q10. The ability of a manager to interface and work effectively with individuals and groups is descriptive of what type of managerial skill?
A) technical
B) administrative
C) interpersonal
D) organizational
Answer Key:
C) interpersonal
Q11. Which of the following characterize a manager as being effective?
A) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of outputs produced
B) They devote a large amount of time to planning
C) They achieve their goals
D) They interview, select, and train people who are most suitable to fill open jobs.
Answer Key:
C) They achieve their goals
Q12. Which of the following strategies aim at improving internal weaknesses by taking advantage of external opportunities?
A) SO
B) WO
C) SW
D) ST
Answer Key:
B) WO
Q13. Which of the following requires an institution to establish annual objectives, devise policies, motivate employees and allocate resources for the execution of strategies?
A) Strategy formulation
B) Strategy evaluation
C) Strategy implementation
D) Strategy estimation
Answer Key:
C) Strategy implementation
Q14. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see in a vision statement?
A) Descriptions of desirable future interactions
B) Motivational Terminology
C) Focus on values to which an institution is committed
D) What an institution seeks to do to reach desirable future state
Answer Key:
D) What an institution seeks to do to reach desirable future state
Q15.Which of the following indicated an important functional area, of an institution, requiring change?
A) Core value
B) Thrust area
C) Change agent
D) Strategy
Answer Key:
B) Thrust area
Q16. What is the recommended length of an effective Mission statement?
A) One page
B) Less than 200 words
C) One sentence of 10 to 20 words
D) There is no recommendation, it can be as long as the institute management wants
Answer Key:
B) Less than 200 words
Q17. Which of the following is associated with successful strategies?
A) Creating superior value to customers
B) Exploitation of key success factors
C) Creating and maintaining strategic fit
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q18. Any person, group or organisation that can place a claim on an institution’s attention/resources/output is called:
A) Customer
B) Top Management
C) Stakeholder
D) Consumer
Answer Key:
C) Stakeholder
Q19. The following is NOT a principle of organisation:
A) Principle of exception
B) Principle of balance
C) Principle of complexity
D) Principle of co-ordination
Answer Key:
C) Principle of complexity
Q20. The process of dividing the work and then grouping them into units and subunits for the purpose of administration is known as:
A) Departmentation
B) Organisation structure
C) Committee
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
A) Departmentation
Q21. Each subordinate should have only one superior whose command he has to obey. This is known as:
A) Division of work
B) Exception principle
C) Unity of Command principle
D) Authority – responsibility principle
Answer Key:
C) Unity of Command principle
Q22. Delegation of authority is linked to:
A) Managerial planning
B) Management coordination
C) Management control
D) Scientific management
Answer Key:
C) Management control
Q23. The main advantage of functional organisation is:
A) Specialisation
B) Simplicity
C) Expert advice
D) Experience
Answer Key:
A) Specialisation
Q24. In line and staff organisation, the authority lies in:
A) Line
B) Staff
C) Both line and staff
D) None of the above
Answer Key:
A) Line
Q25. If the span of control is narrow, a number of managers would be required in each unit of the organization and there would be many managerial levels or layers, such an organizational structure is referred to as:
A) Flat structure
B) Tall structure
C) Matrix structure
D) Project structure
Answer Key:
B) Tall structure
Q26. What are group norms?
A) Modes of behaviours that are shared by some members of the group
B) Modes of behaviours that challenge group values and beliefs
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members
D) Modes of behaviours that are different of those of other group members
Answer Key:
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members
Q27. Teams occur when a number of people have _________ and recognise that their personal success is dependent on the success of others.
A) A shared work environment
B) A common goal
C) Similar jobs
D) The common boss
Answer Key:
B) A common goal
Q28. Which of the following is a way to increase team participation?
A) Plan the team meetings and share agenda with people beforehand
B) Ask the leader of the group to run the meeting and talk the most.
C) Encourage everyone to talk whenever they have something to say, even if another person is talking
D) Point out dominating behavior to everyone.
Answer Key:
A) Plan the team meetings and share agenda with people beforehand
Q29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective team?
A) The open expression of feelings and disagreements
B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves
C) A belief in shared aims and objectives
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives
Answer Key:
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives
Q30. Which of the following is NOT a Team Maintenance Role?
A) Encouraging
B) Compromising
C) Harmonising
D) Information giving
Answer Key:
D) Information giving
Q31. From the point of view of an effective team, answer the following question:
Hari, a senior member of the team, and Ramesh, a junior member of the team, are on the opposite sides of an important issue. Both of their positions have merit. You notice that as Hari and Ramesh present their arguments, other team members:
A) Seem to be harsher in the criticisms of Ramesh’s arguments
B) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences
C) Favour Hari slightly over Ramesh.
D) Don’t pay much attention to either viewpoint
Answer Key:
B) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences
Q32. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Group Think?
A) Illusions of vulnerability
B) Belief in inherent group morality
C) Applying direct pressure to deviants
D) Self-censorship by member
Answer Key:
A) Illusions of vulnerability
Q33. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads?
A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) On payroll
D) Third pay
Answer Key:
B) Indirect
Q34. Which of the following provides complete job related information (both positive and negative) to the applicants so that they can make right decisions before taking the job?
A) Job Compatibility Questionnaire
B) Realistic job preview
C) Market survey
D) None of the above
Answer Key:
B) Realistic job preview
Q35. Selection is __________ in its application as much as it seeks to eliminate as many unqualified applications as possible in order to identify the right candidates.
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Both negative and positive
D) None of the above
Answer Key:
B) Negative
Q36. Which of the following topics are covered in employee orientation programme?
A) Training and education benefit
B) Relationship to other jobs
C) Disciplinary regulations
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q37. The allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial assignment of new employees, and promotion, transfer, or demotion of present employees is referred to as:
A) Recruitment
B) Placement
C) Selection
D) Orientation
Answer Key:
B) Placement
Q38. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?
A) Improves morale
B) Helps people identify with institutional goals
C) Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co – ordination
D) None of the above
Answer Key:
C) Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co – ordination
Q39. What is the alternate name for incentives?
A) Gratuity
B) Paid holidays
C) Payments by result
D) None of the above
Answer Key:
C) Payments by result
Q40: Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –
I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option
II. Job Context —— B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites ——— C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ———– D. Medical Care
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
Q41. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?
A) Employee participation
B) Pay secrecy
C) Comparable worth
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q42. When a higher level job is assigned to an individual without increase in salary, it is called:
A) Horizontal promotion
B) Vertical Promotion
C) Dry promotion
D) Diagonal promotion
Answer Key:
C) Dry promotion
Q43. Payment to faculty on per class/period of teaching or output per period/hour basis is called:
A) Time rate method
B) Period rate method
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above mentioned
Answer Key:
B) Period rate method
Q44. Which of following is wrong statement in respect of CCS (Conduct) Rules 1964?
A) A Govt. servant qualified to vote at such election may exercise his right to vote.
B) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an election in legislature election only
C) Govt servant endeavour to prevent any member of his family from taking part in elections
D) None of the these
Answer Key:
B) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an election in legislature election only
Q45. The following act, conduct and commissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct:
A) If the act or conduct is prejudicial or likely to be prejudicial to the interests of the master or to the reputation of the master
B) If the act or conduct is inconsistent or incompatible with the due or peaceful discharge of his duty to his master
C) If the act or conduct of a servant makes it unsafe for the employer to retain him in service
D) All the above
Answer Key:
D) All the above
Q46. A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in part has been made during a period of:
A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
B) Financial year in which sanction accorded.
C) 6 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
D) 3 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
Answer Key:
A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
Q47. If a bid is accepted during the process of auctioning the disposal, earnest money should immediately be taken on the spot from the successful bidder. The amount of the earnest money should be:
A) not less than 10%
B) not less than 20%
C) not less than 25%
D) not less than 30%
Answer Key:
C) not less than 25%
Q48. A physical verification of all the consumable goods and materials should be undertaken at least once in:
A) one month
B) six months
C) one year
D) two years
Answer Key:
C) one year
Q49. The process of recording financial data up to trial balance is:
A) Classifying
B) Summarising
C) Analyzing
D) Book keeping
Answer Key:
D) Book keeping
Q50. As per accrual concept, which of the followings is not true:
A) sales + gross profit = revenue
B) revenue –profit = expenditure
C) revenue –expenditure = profit
D) revenue = profit + expenditure
Answer Key:
A) sales + gross profit = revenue
Q51. A manager gets his authority by virtue of his position, while a __________ gets his authority from his followers.
A) Mentor
B) Counsellor
C) Leader
D) Coach
Answer Key:
C) Leader
Q52. Which of the following theories seeks to determine the personal characteristics of effective leaders?
A) Behavioural theory
B) Fiedler’s contingency theory
C) House’s Path Goal theory
D) Trait theory
Answer Key:
D) Trait theory
Q53. A style of leadership that takes account of others’ views, opinions and ideas is:
A) Autocratic
B) Democratic
C) Laissez-faire
D) A mix of laissez-faire and democratic
Answer Key:
B) Democratic
Q54. According to Fiedler’s LPC scale, leaders with a low LPC score will gain satisfaction from:
A) Achieving objectives
B) Developing team relationships
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer Key:
A) Achieving objectives
Q55. Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence because of the leader’s:
A) Ability to punish or reward
B) Position within an organization
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Personal charisma
Answer Key:
D) Personal charisma
Q56. The situational theory of leadership emphasises:
A) Environment
B) Events
C) Personality Traits
D) Political Situation
Answer Key:
B) Events
Q57. Which of the following style of leadership leads to satisfied, motivated and more skilled employees, in turn leading to an optimistic work environment and encouraging creativity?
A) Autocratic
B) Bureaucratic
C) Democratic
D) Laissez Faire
Answer Key:
C) Democratic
Q58. In which stage of the communication process, does the receiver interpret the message and translate it into meaningful information?
A) Encoding
B) Decoding
C) Feedback
D) Transmission
Answer Key:
B) Decoding
Q59. Which of the following facial clues often reveals that a person is lying?
A) Failure to look you in the eye
B) Facial shift
C) Crooked smile
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q60. Upward communication flows from ____________ by way of complaints, suggestions, advice, feedback etc.:
A) Customers
B) Clients
C) Competitors
D) Lower levels
Answer Key:
D) Lower levels
Q61. The formal greeting with which a business letter begins is called:
A) Body of the letter
B) Reference
C) Salutation
D) Subject
Answer Key:
C) Salutation
Q62. Which of the following terms best describes the grapevine as a communication pattern?
A) Diagonal
B) Informal
C) Serial
D) Verbal
Answer Key:
B) Informal
Q63. When working to create and maintain a favourable relationship with a receiver, a sender should:
A) Use Positive wording
B) Stress mutual interests and benefits
C) Impress the receiver by using technical terms
D) Do just what the receiver expects
Answer Key:
B) Stress mutual interests and benefits
Q64. Rearrange the following six steps of motivation logically:
A. Engages in goal – directed behaviour
B. Reassesses needs deficiencies
C. Performs
D. Identifies needs
E. Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
F. Receives either rewards or punishment
A) ABCDEF
B) BCDEAF
C) DFCAEB
D) DEACFB
Answer Key:
D) DEACFB
Q65. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a Motivated Workforce?
A) High Productivity
B) Ingenuity in the use of Resources
C) High Employee Turnover
D) Work conscious
Answer Key:
C) High Employee Turnover
Q66. Which of the following theories of motivation focus on the needs a person is trying to satisfy and the features of the work environment that seems to satisfy those needs?
A) Process theories
B) Situational theories
C) Content theories
D) Motivational theories
Answer Key:
C) Content theories
Q67. Which is one of the following Techniques of Motivating Oneself?
A) Individualizing reinforcers
B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying
C) Matching people to tasks
D) Providing opportunities to grow
Answer Key:
B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying
Q68. In which of the following employees ‘career hazards’ are dealt?
A) Coaching
B) Counselling
C) Development
D) Mentoring
Answer Key:
D) Mentoring
Q69. Which one of the following is the aim of Counselling?
A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour
Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
Q70. Setting SMART goals imply:
A) Specific, Matching, Accurate, Realistic, Tactful
B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely
C) Specific, Measurable, Accurate, Reliable, Tactful
D) Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely
Answer Key:
B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely
Q71. Goals are the ______ of Management action.
A) Starting points
B) Planning
C) End points
D) Directions
Answer Key:
C) End points
Q72. Which of the following time management technique refers to eating meals on the run to make good use of time ordinarily spent on sitting down for meals?
A) Grazing
B) Greasing
C) Snacking
D) Snagging
Answer Key:
A) Grazing
Q73. An example of streamlining your work effort to eliminate time wasting tasks is:
A) Assist your secretary with routine phone calls
B) Be a good employee and help others routinely with their tasks
C) Look for duplication of effort and waste; then, take action to eliminate them
D) Read and reply to e-mail hourly
Answer Key:
C) Look for duplication of effort and waste; then, take action to eliminate them
Q74. Work attitudes can be reflected in an institution/organization through:
A) Job Satisfaction
B) Organizational Commitment
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer Key:
C) Both (A) and (B)
Q75. Which of the following is NOT the component of Attitudes?
A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognition
C) Behaviour
D) Affect
Answer Key:
A) Psycho-motor
Q76. Which of the following is not one of the stages in Kurt Lewin’s famous three stage prescriptive model of change developed in the 1950s?
A) Moving to a new level
B) Refreezing attitudes at the new level
C) Unfreezing current attitudes
D) Melting resistance
Answer Key:
D) Melting resistance
Q77. Which of the following is NOT a way of overcoming resistance to change?
A) Communication and discussion
B) Involving those who resist in the change process
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
D) Giving incentives
Answer Key:
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
Q78. Which of the following will NOT affect the choice of planned change programme in an institution?
A) Culture
B) Leadership style
C) Nature of institution
D) Government policy
Answer Key:
D) Government policy
Q79. Which of the following is a part of the six-point plan for strategic change?
A) Foster consensus for the new vision, competence to enact it and cohesion to move it along
B) Institute revitalisation through formal policies, systems and structures
C) Monitor and adjust strategies in response to problems in the revitalization process
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q80. Which of the following is NOT a key task for those involved in seeking political agreements over planned change in an institution?
A) Seek out potential opposition and attempt to change opinions or, at least, to neutralise them
B) Identify potential and influential supporters and persuade them to support the new strategy
C) Negotiate any necessary ‘side deals’ to get people on side
D) Build the maximum consensus for the new proposals, preferably prior to any formal decision meeting
Answer Key:
C) Negotiate any necessary ‘side deals’ to get people on side
Q81. The personalities of creative people tend to have all of the following characteristics except:
A) A positive self-image without being blindly self-confident
B) Can work along in isolation necessary for developing ideas
C) Frequently considered to be nonconformists and do not need strong approval from the group
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task
Answer Key:
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task
Q82. Creativity is likely to occur when three components come together which involve expertise, creative thinking skills and:
A) proper lighting in the work environment
B) right type of motivation
C) stable economical conditions
D) extrinsically motivating conditions in the work environment
Answer Key:
B) right type of motivation
Q83. The last step in a control process is:
A) Allocate resources
B) Taking corrective action
C) Select a strategy
D) Set standards
Answer Key:
B) Taking corrective action
Q84. The weakest form of control is:
A) Pre-control
B) Simultaneous control
C) Post-control
D) Dual control
Answer Key:
C) Post-control
Q85. What is the term for the monitoring of events both internal and external to the institution that affects strategy?
A) Operational control
B) Strategic surveillance
C) Strategic control
D) Environmental scanning
Answer Key:
B) Strategic surveillance
Q86. The main characteristics of an effective control system are:
A) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity
B) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
Answer Key:
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
Q87. Budget is an instrument of:
A) planning only
B) control only
C) both planning and control
D) none of these
Answer Key:
C) both planning and control
Q88. The full form of “BARS” is:
A) Baseline Accounting and Reporting System
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
C) Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System
D) Behaviourally Anchored Reporting Scales
Answer Key:
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
Q89. Which of the following is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while performing performance appraisal?
A) Minimise inventory costs
B) Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones
C) Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
D) None of the above mentioned
Answer Key:
C) Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
Q90. Which of the following performance appraisal methods undertakes maximum time?
A) Rating Scales
B) Critical incident
C) Tests and Observation
D) Essay method
Answer Key:
D) Essay method
Q91. The first person to give the concept of Management by Objectives was:
A) Edwards Deming
B) D.W. Cheetham
C) Peter F. Drucker
D) Hershey Blanchard
Answer Key:
C) Peter F. Drucker
Q92. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of performance management?
A) Performance interview
B) Archiving performance data
C) Use of appraisal data
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q93. “Disciplinary action is contemplated” means:
A) Employee is suspended
B) Prima facie decision is taken on file to penalise the employee
C) Prima facie decision is taken on file to file charges against employee
D) Employee should be removed from service
Answer Key:
C) Prima facie decision is taken on file to file charges against employee
Q94. The time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority is:
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 18 months
Answer Key:
B) 6 months
Q95. Which of the following involves collecting and analysing information about a programme’s activities, characteristics and outcomes:
A) Academic audit
B) Education evaluation
C) Programme evaluation
D) Organisational assessment
Answer Key:
C) Programme evaluation
Q96. Which of the following is NOT a component of institutional evaluation?
A) Systematic collection of evidence
B) Process identification
C) Judgement of value
D) Interpretation of evidence
Answer Key:
B) Process identification
Q97. A standard for performance, settled/ established early on, for later comparison is called :
A) Scope line
B) Base line
C) Performance line
D) Boundary line
Answer Key:
B) Base line
Q98. In institutional evaluation, “Plausibility” means:
A) To check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) To check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) To determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) To determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes
Answer Key:
B) To check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
Q99. Which of the following statement is WRONG about academic audit?
A) Framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) Externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) All of the above
Answer Key:
D) All of the above
Q100. Academic Audit report contains all of the following except:
A) Current status
B) Strengths and weaknesses
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals
D) Action plan for future improvements
Answer Key:
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals
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