Q1: All of the following are the objectives of institutional management EXCEPT one, which is that:
A) Achievement of institutional objectives
B) Improvement in planning, organising and implementation of institutional programmes and activities
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
D) Enhance employees’ job satisfaction
Answer Key:
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
Q2: Institutional Administration is the process of:
A) Utilizing appropriate resources for development of Human qualities
B) Managing activities of educational institutions
C) Planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in educational setting
D) None of these
Answer Key:
B) Managing activities of educational institutions
Q3: The three types of plans in an educational institution are:
A) Top, middle and bottom
B) Operational, occupational and strategic
C) Strategic, tactical and operational
D) Corporate, divisional and local
Answer Key:
C) Strategic, tactical and operational
Q4: The curriculum drift means:
A) Identifying obsolete content
B) Identifying missing content in the curriculum
C) Identifying inappropriate content
D) All of these
Answer Key:
D) All of these
Q5: Which of the following represents heart of the institutional management process?
A) Communication
B) Leadership
C) Organisation
D) Control
Answer Key:
A) Communication
Q6: In institutional management, the function of planning is ____?
A) Preparing for future for desired goals
B) Financial planning
C) To appoint staff
D) None of these
Answer Key:
A) Preparing for future for desired goals
Q7: The level of managers, responsible for establishing a vision for the institution, developing broad plans and strategies, and directing subordinate staff, is:
A) First level managers
B) Middle managers
C) Top level managers
D) Second level managers
Answer Key:
C) Top level managers
Q8: Regulatory requirements, Economic uncertainty, technological innovations, and new competitors are examples of what type of factors that affect institutional management?
A) Internal factors
B) Intra-personal factors
C) External factors
D) Inter-personal factors
Answer Key:
C) External factors
Q9: Thinking in term of phases in planning helps to:
A) Reduce the plan to a simple series of actions
B) Keep the planned efforts on schedule
C) Co-ordinate the separate activities within the plan
D) All of these
Answer Key:
D) All of these
Q10: Which of the following skills is equally important at all levels of management?
A) Technical skill
B) Human relation skill
C) Conceptual skill
D) All of these
Answer Key:
B) Human relation skill
Q11: All are the advantages of institutional planning, except:
A) Helps in channelizing the energies of teachers towards goal achievement
B) Helps in preserving uniqueness of an educational institution
C) Enhances emphasis on the direction of expenditure
D) Provides ample opportunities to individuals to experiment and innovate
Answer Key:
C) Enhances emphasis on the direction of expenditure
Q12: All of the following are true about strategic planning in an institution Except:
A) It is a top down approach of planning
B) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution
Answer Key:
A) It is a top down approach of planning
Q13: Strategic planning is _______ in nature.
A) Descriptive
B) Theoretical
C) Creative
D) Analytical
Answer Key:
D) Analytical
Q14: The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive weapons are:
A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies
Answer Key:
C) Core competencies
Q15: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of strategic planning that makes it different from other types of planning?
A) It is inter-disciplinary
B) It concerns the present direction of the institution
C) It has an external focus
D) It has an internal focus
Answer Key:
C) It has an external focus
Q16: Strategic mission
A) Is an internally focused affirmations of an institution’s societal and ethical goals
B) Is developed by an institution before it develops its strategic intent
C) Do not limit the institution in specifying the environment in which it intends to compete
D) Is a statement of institution’s unique purpose and scope of operations
Answer Key:
D) Is a statement of institution’s unique purpose and scope of operations
Q17: The following is/are associated with successful strategies:
A) Creating superior value to customers
B) Exploitation of key success factors
C) Creating and maintaining strategic fit
D) All of these
Answer Key:
D) All of these
Q18: One of the following is not an element of strategic thinking, which is that?
A) Judgement of what strategic changes to make
B) Realisation of what needs to change
C) Understanding of current strategic positions
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies
Answer Key:
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies
Q19: The managerial function of organizing is to:
A) Review and adjust plan in the light of changing conditions
B) Establish a program for the accomplishment of objectives
C) Create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people
D) Get things done through and with the help of people
Answer Key:
C) Create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people
Q20: According to “Scalar Principle of Organization”
A) A manager can directly supervise a limited number of people
B) The line of authority must be clearly defined
C) Exceptionally complex problems are referred to higher levels of management
D) Each subordinate should have one superior
Answer Key:
B) The line of authority must be clearly defined
Q21: ‘No one on the organisation should have more than one boss’ is a statement of principle of:
A) Specialisation
B) Authority
C) Unity of command
D) Span of control
Answer Key:
C) Unity of command
Q22: The descriptive word most clearly associated with the organic approach to structure is :
A) Static
B) Rigid
C) Bureaucratic
D) Dynamic
Answer Key:
D) Dynamic
Q23: With reference to power and authority, we may conclude all but which one of the following:
A) Authority is only one source of influence among many
B) Supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results
C) Constant reliance on authority indicates a potential supervisory problem
D) Group acceptance of authority is necessary for it to become useful influence
Answer Key:
B) Supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results
Q24: Matrix organizations are really a combination of the:
A) Product and process bases
B) Process and geographic bases
C) Customer and functional bases
D) Functional and product bases
Answer Key:
D) Functional and product bases
Q25: Line function are concerned with those activities which are connected with the discharge of direct responsibility for:
A) Accomplishing the subsidiary objectives of the institution
B) Accomplishing the main objectives of the institution
C) Taking and implementing all decisions
D) None of these
Answer Key:
B) Accomplishing the main objectives of the institution
Q26: Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?
A) A belief in shared aims and objectives.
B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
C) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.
D) The open expression of feelings and disagreements.
Answer Key:
C) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.
Q27: In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of acceptable behaviour.
A) Adjourning
B) Norming
C) Forming
D) Storming
Answer Key:
B) Norming
Q28: A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still __________________ together closely.
A) Temporally, work
B) Geographically, work
C) Geographically, decide
D) Physically, think
Answer Key:
B) Geographically, work
Q29: Which of the following is NOT a roadblock to team progress in an institution?
A) Lack of management support
B) Project objectives are significant
C) No time to do improvement
D) Project scope too large
Answer Key:
B) Project objectives are significant
Q30: Members of a _______team have been cross trained so that each person is able to perform the duties of all other members.
A) Functional
B) Cross functional
C) Multi-functional
D) Self directed
Answer Key:
C) Multi-functional
Q31: The team gathers for the monthly progress and problem report about reaching individual and departmental objectives. Which of the following statements reflect effective team meeting?
A) Only a few team members seem to be concerned about the impact of their presentation; they attempt to build allies within the team
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems
C) Some team members seem to be playing the political game, while others do not
D) One clique exists within this team and their presentations sound about the same-politically safe
Answer Key:
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems
Q32: Which of the following is NOT the part of the forming stage of team development in an institution?
A) Team’s purpose
B) Hostilities and personal needs
C) Members roles
D) Acceptance of roles
Answer Key:
B) Hostilities and personal needs
Q33: Identifying the ——— candidates and —- them to apply for the job is called recruitment.
A) Available, insisting
B) Available, making
C) Potential, insisting
D) Potential, attracting
Answer Key:
D) Potential, attracting
Q34: ——– is a selection test, which evaluate the emotional ability which will help to judge an individual’s working in group
A) Intelligence test
B) Personality test
C) Mental ability test
D) Aptitude test
Answer Key:
B) Personality test
Q35: A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the institution is called:
A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement
Answer Key:
C) Orientation
Q36: Process of collecting and analysing information about the duties, responsibilities and conditions of a specific work assignment is:
A) Job analysis
B) Job evaluation
C) Activity analysis
D) Occupation analysis
Answer Key:
B) Job evaluation
Q37: Training refers to the process of imparting _________ skills
A) General
B) Important
C) Specific
D) Overall
Answer Key:
C) Specific
Q38: Which of the following is an on the job training method?
A) Vestibule training
B) Position rotation or job rotation
C) Conference and seminars
D) Lecture method
Answer Key:
A) Vestibule training
Q39: _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials.
A) Individual equity
B) External equity
C) Internal equity
D) All of these
Answer Key:
C) Internal equity
Q40: Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –
I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option
II. Job Context —— B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites ——— C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ———– D. Medical Care
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
Q41: Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration?
A) Cost of living
B) Legislations
C) Institutional Business strategy
D) Society
Answer Key:
C) Institutional Business strategy
Q42: Assignment of a higher level job to an individual without increase in salary is called:
A) Diagonal promotion
B) Horizontal promotion
C) Vertical Promotion
D) Dry promotion
Answer Key:
D) Dry promotion
Q43: The test of the adequacy of any wage level is in the:
A) Real wages
B) Time wages
C) Money wages
D) None of these
Answer Key:
A) Real wages
Q44: CCS Conduct Rules came into force on
A) 1956
B) 1964
C) 1966
D) 1971
Answer Key:
B) 1964
Q45: As per CCS conduct rules the following omissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct :-
(i) Wilful insubordination or disobedience, whether alone or in combination with others, to any lawful and reasonable order of a superior
(ii) Habitual late attendance
(iii) Habitual absence without permission and overstaying leave
(iv) Conviction by a criminal court Codes
A) Only (i), (ii) & (iii)
B) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
D) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Answer Key:
D) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Q46: Which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) Outstanding expenses -current asset
B) Good will- intangible asset
C) Sundry debtors -current asset
D) Loose tools -tangible fixed asset
Answer Key:
A) Outstanding expenses -current asset
Q47: A material shall generally be considered surplus if it remains in stock for over______ unless adequate reasons to treat it otherwise exist.
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Four years
Answer Key:
A) One year
Q48: Fixed assets should be verified at least once in:
A) Six months
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Three years
Answer Key:
B) One year
Q49: Diwali advance given to an employee is:
A) Revenue Expenditure
B) Capital Expenditure
C) Not an Expenditure
D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
Answer Key:
C) Not an Expenditure
Q50: Pick the incorrect one
A) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case of libraries having more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or unreasonable shortages, complete verification shall be done
B) Loss of five volumes per 1000 volumes of books issued/consulted in a year may be taken as reasonable provided such losses are not attributable to dishonesty or negligence. However, loss of a book of a value exceeding Rs. 1,000/- (Rupees One thousand only) and rare books irrespective of value shall invariably be investigated and appropriate action taken.
C) For libraries having more than 20000 volumes and up to 50000 volumes, such verification should be done at least once in three years.
D) Complete physical verification of books should be done every year in case of libraries having not more than 20000 volumes
Answer Key:
A) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case of libraries having more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or unreasonable shortages, complete verification shall be done
Q51: A manager who shows consistency between his or her words and actions develops a reputation for:
A) Self-confidence
B) Walking the talk
C) Emotionally intelligent
D) Highly energetic
Answer Key:
B) Walking the talk
Q52: Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence because of the leader’s:
A) Ability to punish or reward
B) Position within an organization
C) Both Ability to punish or reward and Position within an organization
D) Personal charisma
Answer Key:
D) Personal charisma
Q53: The situational theory of leadership emphasis is:
A) Environment
B) Events
C) Personality traits
D) Political situation
Answer Key:
B) Events
Q54: According to Fiedler’s LPC scale, leaders with a low LPC score will gain satisfaction from:
A) Achieving objectives
B) Developing team relationships
C) Both Achieving objectives and Developing team relationships
D) Neither Achieving objectives and Developing team relationships
Answer Key:
A) Achieving objectives
Q55: Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that there is:
A) A single style of leadership appropriate to all managers
B) A single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
C) No single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
D) None of these
Answer Key:
C) No single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
Q56: The style of leadership which represents the extreme of centralised decision making authority:
A) Bureaucratic
B) Authoritarian
C) Laissez faire
D) Democratic
Answer Key:
B) Authoritarian
Q57: Which of the following leader behaviours, feature in Hersey and Blanchard’s (1971) Situational leadership theory?
A) Delegating and supportive behaviours
B) Directive and consultative behaviours
C) Supportive and directive behaviours
D) Supportive and participative behaviours
Answer Key:
C) Supportive and directive behaviours
Q58: The proper sequence of elements in the expanded communication model is :
A) Sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning
B) Message-sender-signal-receiver-decode
C) Sender-transmission-message-decode-meaning
D) Message- transmission- encode-receiver-decode
Answer Key:
A) Sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning
Q59: Moving your head, face, and eyes away from another person while communicating is often interpreted as a lack of self-:
A) Respect
B) Esteem
C) Confidence
D) Control
Answer Key:
C) Confidence
Q60: The pattern in which every person has someone ” on each side of him ” with whom he can communicate is the:
A) Circular pattern
B) Chain pattern
C) Centralised pattern
D) Y pattern
Answer Key:
A) Circular pattern
Q61: The tendency that listeners arrive at judgement before all relevant information has been received is called:
A) Filtering
B) Premature evaluation
C) Psychological distance
D) Pressure of time
Answer Key:
B) Premature evaluation
Q62: The synchronous, interactive, real time exchange of message via a mediated source is:
A) Blogs
B) E-mail
C) Online chat
D) Social networking sites
Answer Key:
C) Online chat
Q63: In an organization, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by:
A) Using high decibel audio tools
B) Increasing the information load
C) Exposing the ignorance of co-workers
D) Establishing a view point
Answer Key:
D) Establishing a view point
Q64: The area of behavioral science research that focuses on the personal factors underlying high productivity, as well as high morale, is the area of employee:
A) Communication
B) Motivation
C) Leadership
D) Economic development
Answer Key:
B) Motivation
Q65: Which of the following is the correct sequence in the process of motivation?
1. Action
2. Need
3. Relief
4. Tension
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 1, 4, 3
Answer Key:
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
Q66: Which of the following theories of motivation deal with the basic components of effort, performance and outcomes?
A) Expectancy Theory
B) Equity Theory
C) Goal Setting Theory
D) Reinforcement Theory
Answer Key:
A) Expectancy Theory
Q67: Who propounded “Motivation-Maintenance Theory?”
A) A.H. Maslow
B) Douglas Mc Gregor
C) Frederick Herzberg
D) F.W. Taylor
Answer Key:
C) Frederick Herzberg
Q68: One of the following deals with one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager for developing the leadership skills of the later, which is that:
A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Orientation
D) None of these
Answer Key:
A) Coaching
Q69: Which one of the following is the aim of Counselling?
A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour
Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
Q70: One of the following is NOT an appropriate way that manager can employ for increasing the employee acceptance and commitment to Goals, which is that:
A) Explaining goal relevance to personal needs
B) Convincing employees that goal attainment is within their capabilities
C) Providing managerial support
D) Setting ambiguous standards
Answer Key:
D) Setting ambiguous standards
Q71: For achieving organizational goals effectively, the manager and subordinate should NOT jointly:
A) Identify common goals
B) Indulge in negative criticism of each other
C) Define each individual’s major areas of responsibility
D) Assess the contribution of each of its members
Answer Key:
B) Indulge in negative criticism of each other
Q72: The final activity for time management before moving out of work is:
A) Beware of time wasters
B) Optimize work environment
C) Prioritise all your tasks
D) See what all you set out to accomplish and what all did you finish
Answer Key:
D) See what all you set out to accomplish and what all did you finish
Q73: Which of the following would be considered as using the time management technique of “getting off a good start”?
A) Tackle easy items first to build momentum
B) Leave after the morning rush is over to avoid traffic jams on the freeway
C) Tackle the tough task first because this is usually your peak energy time
D) Begin the day by talking to co-workers to find out what are the hot agendas items for the day.
Answer Key:
C) Tackle the tough task first because this is usually your peak energy time
Q74: The statement “I am going to apologise for my mistakes” is an example of ________ component of attitude
A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognitive
C) Behavioural
D) Affective
Answer Key:
C) Behavioural
Q75: Which of the following is NOT a method used for changing the attitude on an employee?
A) Use of fear
B) Providing new information
C) Giving feedback
D) Performance appraisal
Answer Key:
D) Performance appraisal
Q76: A change agent is the individual who:
A) Supports change
B) Opposes change
C) Initiates change
D) Helps implement change
Answer Key:
D) Helps implement change
Q77: The five stages of the coping cycle are (in order):
A) Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization
B) Defence, denial, discarding, adaptation, internalization
C) Denial, resistance, discarding, adaptation, internalization
D) Denial, defence, resistance, adaptation, internalization
Answer Key:
A) Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization
Q78: Transformational change is often carried out:
A) By middle managers
B) Top down
C) Bottom up
D) After extensive consultation
Answer Key:
B) Top down
Q79: Out of the following identify the reasons “Why individuals might resist organisational change?
1. Lack of interest.
2. Pessimism.
3. Anxiety.
4. Irritation.
5. Opposing strategy proposals.
6. Personal ambitions.
A) All of these
B) 2), 3), 5) and 6)
C) 1), 2), and 4)
D) 2), 4), 5) and 6)
Answer Key:
A) All of these
Q80: Which of the following is NOT a recommended approach to encourage creativity?
A) Tolerating failures
B) Offering recognition for good effort and performance
C) Restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence
D) Encouraging experimentation among employees
Answer Key:
C) Restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence
Q81: The ideas which interfere with the solution of the problem fade away during ________ of creativity process.
A) Preparation phase
B) Evaluation phase
C) Idea generation phase
D) Incubation phase
Answer Key:
D) Incubation phase
Q82: For fostering team creativity, which is an appropriate way an institution may use:
A) Establishing a competitive environment to promote creative ideas
B) Establishing challenges for the team
C) Evaluating ideas during the idea generation stage
D) Stressing deadlines to encourage intensity and focus
Answer Key:
B) Establishing challenges for the team
Q83: Control systems typically focus on all but which of the following factors:
A) Quality of the product
B) Resources consumed
C) Employee performance
D) Quality of planning process
Answer Key:
D) Quality of planning process
Q84: For best management, controlling should be
A) Profit-oriented
B) Cost-oriented
C) Objective-oriented
D) Man-oriented.
Answer Key:
C) Objective-oriented
Q85: If controls are to be effective, they must be specially tailored to:
A) Plans and positions
B) Individual managers and their personalities
C) Needs for efficiency and effectiveness
D) All of these.
Answer Key:
C) Needs for efficiency and effectiveness
Q86: The main characteristics of an effective control system are:
A) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity
B) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance
D) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity
Answer Key:
B) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
Q87: Effective control depends on:
A) Organisation structure
B) Proper direction
C) Flow of communication
D) All of these
Answer Key:
D) All of these
Q88: All of the following are dangers inherent in over control except:
A) Accenting short run results and ignoring long run outcomes
B) The reduction of personal freedom and independence at work
C) The creation of anxiety and stress among workers
D) A tendency toward increased flexibility
Answer Key:
D) A tendency toward increased flexibility
Q89: The traditional method of appraisal whereby the appraiser lists the employees according to their level of performance is called the:
A) Ranking method
B) Critical incident method
C) Graphic scales method
D) Forced distribution method.
Answer Key:
A) Ranking method
Q90: The major weakness of the forced distribution method is:
A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
B) Work is reliable
C) The error of central tendency
D) None of these
Answer Key:
A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
Q91: “The person who was a good performer in distant past is assured to be okay at present also”. This is an example of ________________ in performance appraisal
A) Halo effect
B) Central Tendency
C) Spill over effect
D) Horn effect
Answer Key:
C) Spill over effect
Q92: The actual performance of an individual is measured in terms of his________________.
A) Input and output
B) Returns to the organization
C) Business earned by him
D) Efficiency and effectiveness
Answer Key:
D) Efficiency and effectiveness
Q93: Which of the following leave is admissible to an employee under suspension?
A) Study leave
B) Half pay leave
C) Extra ordinary leave
D) None of these
Answer Key:
C) Extra ordinary leave
Q94: What is the time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months
Answer Key:
B) 6 months
Q95: The systematic collection and interpretation of evidence, leading as part of the process, to a judgement of value with a view to action is called:
A) Feedback
B) Evaluation
C) Corrective action
D) Assessment
Answer Key:
B) Evaluation
Q96: In institutional management, the process of evaluation is:
A) Input directed
B) Process directed
C) Program directed
D) Goal directed
Answer Key:
D) Goal directed
Q97: In institutional evaluation, “Adequacy” means to:
A) Check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) Check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) Determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) Determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes
Answer Key:
A) Check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
Q98: Which of the following is a correct statement with regards to Academic audit:
A) A framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) An externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured
Answer Key:
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured
Q99: One of the following is not the basic principle underlying an academic audit, which is that:
A) Base decisions on evidence
B) Define quality in terms of inputs
C) Learn from best practices
D) Make continuous improvement a priority
Answer Key:
C) Learn from best practices
Q100: The evidence available to auditor is _______ in nature, rather _______ in nature.
A) Conclusive, pervasive
B) Pervasive, conclusive
C) Limited, unlimited
D) None of these
Answer Key:
B) Pervasive, conclusive
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