NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2023 September

Q1. Which term best describes the process of obtaining, deploying, and utilizing a variety of essential resources to contribute to an institution’s success?

A) planning
B) organizing
C) staffing
D) management

Answer Key:
D) management

Q2. In Institutional management, the function of Budgeting is:

A) Financial Planning
B) Accounting
C) Control and expenditure
D) All of the Above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the Above mentioned

Q3. In what order do institutional managers typically perform the managerial functions?

A) organising, planning, controlling, leading
B) organising, leading, planning, controlling
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling
D) planning, organising, controlling, leading

Answer Key:
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling

Q4. Which one of the following statement is correct?

A) Planning and controlling are essentially one and the same
B) Controlling is a part of the planning process
C) Controlling is a substitute for planning
D) A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals

Answer Key:
D) A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals

Q5. Planning for the Institution should be based on:

A) Syllabus
B) Aims and Needs
C) Resources
D) All of the Above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Aims and Needs

Q6. Goals of the institution should be:

A) Relevant
B) Achievable
C) Specific
D) All of the Above Mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Achievable

Q7. The assumptions about the environment in which an institutional plans are formulated and executed are:

A) A regular follow-up
B) Derivative plans
C) Planning Premises
D) Setting of objectives

Answer Key:
C) Planning Premises

Q8. Planning begins with:

A) assessing and choosing the best alternative
B) designing evaluation procedures
C) selecting material
D) setting of objectives

Answer Key:
D) setting of objectives

Q9. Which level of management is responsible for implementing programs that are intended to carry out the broader objectives of an institution set by executives?

A) shop floor workers
B) middle level managers
C) first level managers
D) chief financial managers

Answer Key:
B) middle level managers

Q10. The ability of a manager to interface and work effectively with individuals and groups is descriptive of what type of managerial skill?

A) technical
B) administrative
C) interpersonal
D) organizational

Answer Key:
C) interpersonal

Q11. A programme of development and improvement prepared by an educational institution is called as a(n):

A) long-term plan
B) institutional plan
C) Planning Premises
D) short term plan

Answer Key:
B) institutional plan

Q12. Which of the following is NOT true about strategic planning in an institution?

A) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change
B) It is a top down approach of planning
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution

Answer Key:
B) It is a top down approach of planning

Q13. The outcomes from a study of the external environment are __________ and _________.

A) Threats and Weaknesses
B) Strengths and Weaknesses
C) Strengths and Opportunities
D) Opportunities and Threats

Answer Key:
D) Opportunities and Threats

Q14. The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive weapons are:

A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

Q15. What is the starting point of strategic intent?

A) Objectives
B) Goals
C) Vision
D) Mission

Answer Key:
C) Vision

Q16. Which of the following are short term milestones or benchmarks that an institution must attain in order to achieve its long term objectives?

A) Vision
B) Mission
C) Plans
D) Goals

Answer Key:
D) Goals

Q17. Which of the following is associated with successful strategies?

A) Creating superior value to customers
B) Exploitation of key success factors
C) Creating and maintaining strategic fit
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q18. Which of the following is not an element of strategic thinking?

A) Judgement of what strategic changes to make
B) Realisation of what needs to change
C) Understanding of current strategic positions
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Answer Key:
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Q19. Age old system of administrative hierarchy, based on formal authorities, used to delegate orderly, fair and logical instructions to subordinates is:

A) Bureaucracies
B) Mechanistic structure
C) Organisational Structure
D) Organic structure

Answer Key:
A) Bureaucracies

Q20. Responsibility always flows from:

A) Superior to subordinate
B) Subordinate to superior
C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Subordinate to superior

Q21. Each subordinate should have only one superior whose command he has to obey. This is known as:

A) Division of work
B) Exception principle
C) Unity of Command principle
D) Authority – responsibility principle

Answer Key:
C) Unity of Command principle

Q22. Delegation of authority is linked to:

A) Managerial planning
B) Management coordination
C) Management control
D) Scientific management

Answer Key:
C) Management control

Q23. The main advantage of functional organisation is:

A) Specialisation
B) Simplicity
C) Expert advice
D) Experience

Answer Key:
A) Specialisation

Q24. In line and staff organisation, the authority lies in:

A) Line
B) Staff
C) Both line and staff
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
A) Line

Q25. If the span of control is narrow, a number of managers would be required in each unit of the organization and there would be many managerial levels or layers, such an organizational structure is referred to as:

A) Flat structure
B) Tall structure
C) Matrix structure
D) Project structure

Answer Key:
B) Tall structure

Q26. Group norms are:

A) Modes of behaviours that are shared by some members of the group
B) Modes of behaviours that challenge group values and beliefs
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members
D) Modes of behaviours that are different of those of other group members

Answer Key:
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members

Q27. Teams occur when a number of people have _________ and recognise that their personal success is dependent on the success of others.

A) A shared work environment
B) A common goal
C) Similar jobs
D) The common boss

Answer Key:
B) A common goal

Q28. Which of the following is a way to increase team participation?

A) Plan the team meetings and share agenda with people beforehand
B) Ask the leader of the group to run the meeting and talk the most.
C) Encourage everyone to talk whenever they have something to say, even if another person is talking
D) Point out dominating behavior to everyone.

Answer Key:
A) Plan the team meetings and share agenda with people beforehand

Q29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective team?

A) The open expression of feelings and disagreements
B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves
C) A belief in shared aims and objectives
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Answer Key:
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Q30. Which of the following is NOT a Team Maintenance Role?

A) Encouraging
B) Compromising
C) Harmonising
D) Information giving

Answer Key:
D) Information giving

Q31. From the point of view of an effective team, answer the following question:

Hari, a senior member of the team, and Ramesh, a junior member of the team, are on the opposite sides of an important issue. Both of their positions have merit. You notice that as Hari and Ramesh present their arguments, other team members:

A) Seem to be harsher in the criticisms of Ramesh’s arguments
B) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences
C) Favour Hari slightly over Ramesh.
D) Don’t pay much attention to either viewpoint

Answer Key:
B) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences

Q32. Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development?

A) Forming
B) Deciding
C) Performing
D) Storming

Answer Key:
B) Deciding

Q33. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.

A) Training
B) Recruitment
C) Work quality
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
A) Training

Q34. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment:

(I). Searching
(II). Evaluation and control
(III). Planning
(IV). Screening
(V). Strategy development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (III), (II), (I), (V), (IV).
B) (III), (V), (I), (IV), (II).
C) (IV), (V), (III), (I), (II).
D) (II), (I), (IV), (V), (III).

Answer Key:
B) (III), (V), (I), (IV), (II).

Q35. A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their coworkers and the institution is called:

A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement

Answer Key:
C) Orientation

Q36. Which strategic choices an institute needs to make before designing its orientation programme?

A) Formal or informal
B) Individual or collective
C) Serial or disjunctive
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q37. The learning opportunities designed to help employees grow is referred to as:

A) Training
B) Development
C) Education
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Development

Q38. Which of this is a step in training process?

A) Identify KSA deficiency
B) Provide proper feedback
C) Identify Obstacles in the system
D) Use of evaluation models

Answer Key:
D) Use of evaluation models

Q39. What is the alternate name for incentives?

A) Gratuity
B) Paid holidays
C) Payments by result
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
C) Payments by result

Q40. Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –

List-I	List-II
(A). Fringe benefits	(I). Stock option
(B). Job context	(II). Challenging job responsibilities
(C). Prerequisites	(III). Group plans
(D). Incentives	(IV). Medical care

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Q41. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?

A) Employee participation
B) Pay secrecy
C) Comparable worth
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q42. When a higher level job is assigned to an individual without increase in salary, it is called:

A) Horizontal promotion
B) Vertical Promotion
C) Dry promotion
D) Diagonal promotion

Answer Key:
C) Dry promotion

Q43. Payment to faculty on per class/period of teaching or output per period/hour basis is called:

A) Time rate method
B) Period rate method
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Period rate method

Q44. Which of following is wrong statement in respect of CCS (Conduct) Rules 1964?

A) A Govt. servant qualified to vote at such election may exercise his right to vote.
B) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an election in legislature election only
C) Govt servant endeavour to prevent any member of his family from taking part in elections.
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an election in legislature election only

Q45. The following act, conduct and commissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct:

A) If the act or conduct is prejudicial or likely to be prejudicial to the interests of the master or to the reputation of the master

B) If the act or conduct is inconsistent or incompatible with the due or peaceful discharge of his duty to his master

C) If the act or conduct of a servant makes it unsafe for the employer to retain him in service

D) All the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All the above mentioned

Q46. A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in part has been made during a period of:

A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
B) Financial year in which sanction accorded.
C) 6 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
D) 3 months from the date of issue of such sanction.

Answer Key:
A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.

Q47. If a bid is accepted during the process of auctioning the disposal, earnest money should immediately be taken on the spot from the successful bidder. The amount of the earnest money should be:

A) not less than 10%
B) not less than 20%
C) not less than 25%
D) not less than 30%

Answer Key:
C) not less than 25%

Q48. A physical verification of all the consumable goods and materials should be undertaken at least once in:

A) one month
B) six months
C) one year
D) two years

Answer Key:
C) one year

Q49. The process of recording financial data up to trial balance is:

A) Classifying
B) Summarising
C) Analyzing
D) Book keeping

Answer Key:
D) Book keeping

Q50. As per accrual concept, which of the followings is not true:

A) sales + gross profit = revenue
B) revenue –profit = expenditure
C) revenue –expenditure = profit
D) revenue = profit + expenditure

Answer Key:
A) sales + gross profit = revenue

Q51. A manager gets his authority by virtue of his position, while a _____ gets his authority from his followers.

A) Mentor
B) Counsellor
C) Leader
D) Coach

Answer Key:
C) Leader

Q52. Which of the following theories seeks to determine the personal characteristics of effective leaders?

A) Behavioural theory
B) Fiedler’s contingency theory
C) House’s Path Goal theory
D) Trait theory

Answer Key:
D) Trait theory

Q53. A style of leadership that takes account of others’ views, opinions and ideas is:

A) Autocratic
B) Democratic
C) Laissez-faire
D) A mix of laissez-faire and democratic

Answer Key:
B) Democratic

Q54. According to Fiedler’s LPC scale, leaders with a low LPC score will gain satisfaction from:

A) Achieving objectives
B) Developing team relationships
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer Key:
A) Achieving objectives

Q55. Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence because of the leader’s:

A) Ability to punish or reward
B) Position within an organization
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Personal charisma

Answer Key:
D) Personal charisma

Q56. The situational theory of leadership emphasises:

A) Environment
B) Events
C) Personality Traits
D) Political Situation

Answer Key:
B) Events

Q57. Which of the following style of leadership leads to satisfied, motivated and more skilled employees, in turn leading to an optimistic work environment and encouraging creativity?

A) Autocratic
B) Bureaucratic
C) Democratic
D) Laissez Faire

Answer Key:
C) Democratic

Q58. In which stage of the communication process, does the receiver interpret the message and translate it into meaningful information?

A) Encoding
B) Decoding
C) Feedback
D) Transmission

Answer Key:
B) Decoding

Q59. Which of the following facial clues often reveals that a person is lying?

A) Failure to look you in the eye
B) Facial shift
C) Crooked smile
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q60. Upward communication flows from ____________ by way of complaints, suggestions, advice, feedback etc.:

A) Customers
B) Clients
C) Competitors
D) Lower levels

Answer Key:
D) Lower levels

Q61. The formal greeting with which a business letter begins is called:

A) Body of the letter
B) Reference
C) Salutation
D) Subject

Answer Key:
C) Salutation

Q62. Which of the following terms best describes the grapevine as a communication pattern?

A) Diagonal
B) Informal
C) Serial
D) Verbal

Answer Key:
B) Informal

Q63. When working to create and maintain a favourable relationship with a receiver, a sender should:

A) Use Positive wording
B) Stress mutual interests and benefits
C) Impress the receiver by using technical terms
D) Do just what the receiver expects

Answer Key:
A) Use Positive wording

Q64. Rearrange the following six steps of motivation logically:

(A). Engages in goal – directed behaviour
(B). Reassesses needs deficiencies
(C). Performs
(D). Identifies needs
(E). Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
(F). Receives either rewards or punishment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) ABCDEF
B) BCDEAF
C) DFCAEB
D) DEACFB

Answer Key:
D) DEACFB

Q65 Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a Motivated Workforce?

A) High Productivity
B) Ingenuity in the use of Resources
C) High Employee Turnover
D) Work conscious

Answer Key:
C) High Employee Turnover

Q66. Which of the following theories of motivation focus on the needs a person is trying to satisfy and the features of the work environment that seems to satisfy those needs?

A) Process theories
B) Situational theories
C) Content theories
D) Motivational theories

Answer Key:
C) Content theories

Q67. Which is one of the following Techniques of Motivating Oneself?

A) Individualizing reinforcers
B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying
C) Matching people to tasks
D) Providing opportunities to grow

Answer Key:
B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying

Q68. In which of the following employees ‘career hazards’ are dealt?

A) Coaching
B) Counselling
C) Development
D) Mentoring

Answer Key:
D) Mentoring

Q69. Which one of the following is the aim of Counselling?

A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour

Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity

Q70. Setting SMART goals imply:

A) Specific, Matching, Accurate, Realistic, Tactful
B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely
C) Specific, Measurable, Accurate, Reliable, Tactful
D) Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely

Answer Key:
B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely

Q71. Goals are the ______ of Management action.

A) Starting points
B) Planning
C) End points
D) Directions

Answer Key:
C) End points

Q72. Which of the following time management technique refers to eating meals on the run to make good use of time ordinarily spent on sitting down for meals?

A) Grazing
B) Greasing
C) Snacking
D) Snagging

Answer Key:
A) Grazing

Q73. An example of streamlining your work effort to eliminate time wasting tasks is:

A) Assist your secretary with routine phone calls
B) Be a good employee and help others routinely with their tasks
C) Look for duplication of effort and waste; then, take action to eliminate them
D) Read and reply to e-mail hourly

Answer Key:
C) Look for duplication of effort and waste; then, take action to eliminate them

Q74. Work attitudes can be reflected in an institution/organization through:

A) Job Satisfaction
B) Organizational Commitment
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer Key:
C) Both (A) and (B)

Q75. Which of the following is NOT the component of Attitudes?

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognition
C) Behaviour
D) Affect

Answer Key:
A) Psycho-motor

Q76. Which of the following is not one of the stages in Kurt Lewin’s famous three stage prescriptive model of change developed in the 1950s?

A) Moving to a new level
B) Refreezing attitudes at the new level
C) Unfreezing current attitudes
D) Melting resistance

Answer Key:
D) Melting resistance

Q77. Which of the following is NOT a way of overcoming resistance to change?

A) Communication and discussion
B) Involving those who resist in the change process
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
D) Giving incentives

Answer Key:
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line

Q78. Which of the following will NOT affect the choice of planned change programme in an institution?

A) Culture
B) Leadership style
C) Nature of institution
D) Government policy

Answer Key:
D) Government policy

Q79. Which of the following is a part of the six-point plan for strategic change?

A) Foster consensus for the new vision, competence to enact it and cohesion to move it along
B) Institute revitalisation through formal policies, systems and structures
C) Monitor and adjust strategies in response to problems in the revitalization process
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q80. Which of the following is NOT a key task for those involved in seeking political agreements over planned change in an institution?

A) Seek out potential opposition and attempt to change opinions or, at least, to neutralise them

B) Identify potential and influential supporters and persuade them to support the new strategy

C) Negotiate any necessary ‘side deals’ to get people on side

D) Build the maximum consensus for the new proposals, preferably prior to any formal decision meeting

Answer Key:
C) Negotiate any necessary ‘side deals’ to get people on side

Q81. The personalities of creative people tend to have all of the following characteristics except:

A) A positive self-image without being blindly self-confident
B) Can work along in isolation necessary for developing ideas
C) Frequently considered to be nonconformists and do not need strong approval from the group
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Answer Key:
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Q82. Creativity is likely to occur when three components come together which involve expertise, creative thinking skills and:

A) proper lighting in the work environment
B) right type of motivation
C) stable economical conditions
D) extrinsically motivating conditions in the work environment

Answer Key:
B) right type of motivation

Q83. The last step in a control process is:

A) Allocate resources
B) Taking corrective action
C) Select a strategy
D) Set standards

Answer Key:
B) Taking corrective action

Q84. The weakest form of control is:

A) Pre-control
B) Simultaneous control
C) Post-control
D) Dual control

Answer Key:
C) Post-control

Q85. What is the term for the monitoring of events both internal and external to the institution that affects strategy?

A) Operational control
B) Strategic surveillance
C) Strategic control
D) Environmental scanning

Answer Key:
B) Strategic surveillance

Q86. The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity
B) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Answer Key:
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Q87. Budget is an instrument of:

A) planning only
B) control only
C) both planning and control
D) none of these mentioned

Answer Key:
C) both planning and control

Q88. The full form of “BARS” is:

A) Baseline Accounting and Reporting System
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
C) Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System
D) Behaviourally Anchored Reporting Scales

Answer Key:
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

Q89. Which of the following is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while performing performance appraisal?

A) Minimise inventory costs
B) Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones
C) Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
C) Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour

Q90. Which of the following performance appraisal methods undertakes maximum time?

A) Rating Scales
B) Critical incident
C) Tests and Observation
D) Essay method

Answer Key:
D) Essay method

Q91. The first person to give the concept of Management by Objectives was:

A) Edwards Deming
B) D.W. Cheetham
C) Peter F. Drucker
D) Hershey Blanchard

Answer Key:
C) Peter F. Drucker

Q92. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of performance management?

A) Performance interview
B) Archiving performance data
C) Use of appraisal data
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q93. “Disciplinary action is contemplated” means:

A) Employee is suspended
B) Prima facie decision is taken on file to penalise the employee
C) Prima facie decision is taken on file to file charges against employee
D) Employee should be removed from service

Answer Key:
C) Prima facie decision is taken on file to file charges against employee

Q94. The time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority is:

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 18 months

Answer Key:
B) 6 months

Q95. Which of the following involves collecting and analysing information about a programme’s activities, characteristics and outcomes:

A) Academic audit
B) Education evaluation
C) Programme evaluation
D) Organisational assessment

Answer Key:
C) Programme evaluation

Q96. Which of the following is NOT a component of institutional evaluation?

A) Systematic collection of evidence
B) Process identification
C) Judgement of value
D) Interpretation of evidence

Answer Key:
B) Process identification

Q97. A standard for performance, settled/ established early on, for later comparison is called :

A) Scope line
B) Base line
C) Performance line
D) Boundary line

Answer Key:
B) Base line

Q98. In institutional evaluation, “Plausibility” means:

A) To check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) To check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) To determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) To determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:
B) To check whether the institute has attained the expected goals

Q99. Which of the following statement is WRONG about academic audit?

A) Framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) Externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q100. Academic Audit report contains all of the following except:

A) Current status
B) Strengths and weaknesses
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals
D) Action plan for future improvements

Answer Key:
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals

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